JackG4 (Texas)
Posts: 2
Posts: 2
Posted:
My friend currently lives in San Antonio where his parents have bought him a home while he goes to college there. He lives in a 4bedroom home where he rents out the other 3 rooms to his friends.
He told me the HOA is getting on him and his family for violating the land rule regulation stated in the DCCR. Here is what is stated in that section:
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RESIDENTIAL PURPOSES ONLY:
All land included within the property shall be used for "residential purposes" only, either for the construction of private single-family residences, including an enclosed private garage, or as part of the Common Area; provided, however, that only one such private single-family residence may be constructed, or otherwise placed upon any one lot.
The term "residential purposes" as used herein shall be held and construed to exclude any business, commercial, industrial, apartment house, hospital, clinic and/or professional uses, and such excluded uses are hereby expressly prohibited subject solely to the use by each Builder Member of residences within the property as temporary sales offices and model homes for the display and sale of lots and homes within the property and no others.
This restriction shall not, however, prevent the inclusion of "granny flats" or permanent living quarters for domestic servants or to allow domestic servants to be domiciled with an owner or resident.
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He told me that the HOA plans to sue because he is violating their "single family residence" rule. This is the rule set in the DCCR.
Is he really violating this specific rule by having 3 other live with him? Reading this sound more as if theyre speaking on the structure of a unit rather than the actual people living there.
Tell me what you guys think, any help will be useful for him. And do HOAs in Texas have the right to dictate whether someone can rent out rooms even with the owner living there?
He told me the HOA is getting on him and his family for violating the land rule regulation stated in the DCCR. Here is what is stated in that section:
=======================================
RESIDENTIAL PURPOSES ONLY:
All land included within the property shall be used for "residential purposes" only, either for the construction of private single-family residences, including an enclosed private garage, or as part of the Common Area; provided, however, that only one such private single-family residence may be constructed, or otherwise placed upon any one lot.
The term "residential purposes" as used herein shall be held and construed to exclude any business, commercial, industrial, apartment house, hospital, clinic and/or professional uses, and such excluded uses are hereby expressly prohibited subject solely to the use by each Builder Member of residences within the property as temporary sales offices and model homes for the display and sale of lots and homes within the property and no others.
This restriction shall not, however, prevent the inclusion of "granny flats" or permanent living quarters for domestic servants or to allow domestic servants to be domiciled with an owner or resident.
========================================
He told me that the HOA plans to sue because he is violating their "single family residence" rule. This is the rule set in the DCCR.
Is he really violating this specific rule by having 3 other live with him? Reading this sound more as if theyre speaking on the structure of a unit rather than the actual people living there.
Tell me what you guys think, any help will be useful for him. And do HOAs in Texas have the right to dictate whether someone can rent out rooms even with the owner living there?