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BarbaraD6 (Florida)
Posts: 347
Posted:

"Any action to be taken or which may be taken at a Board meeting may be taken without a meeting if all directors sign a consent in writing, setting forth the action so taken. Such consent shall have the same force and effect as a unanimous vote"

Their are several different opinions on what this means, please give yours.

thanks
Barbara
MaryA1 (Arizona)
Posts: 7,043
Posted:
Barbara,

It's not uncommon for the BOD to have this authority as outlined in the gov docs and/or state law (usually the nonprofit corp statutes). However, even if not explicitly specified, this method for conducting business of the assn should only be used if something comes up that requires the immedicate attention of the BOD but a quorum cannot be reached to hold a meeting. Even then, the action cannot be taken until each member of the BOD has consented, in writing, to taking the action. In other words there must be a unanimous consent to taking the action. Some boards may want to use this method to get out of holding a meeting, especially if they are required to notice the meeting so that members may attend, however, IMO, this would be improper.
SureshD
Posts: 268
Posted:
Our assn. has similar language in the docs. and executes it a couple of times a year. It is commonly used to choose a contractor after receiving 3 quotes between meetings.

Example: The BOD has decided to do XYZ, the PM gaters the quotes and emails all BOD members. The BOD motions and agrees in writing to accept quote ABC, the secretary is mailed ALL 5 BOD members' written consent, when all consents are received the emails are sent to the PM for execution.

A very useful tool.

BrianB (California)
Posts: 2,820
Posted:
Your BOD could set up a couple of these in writing, for handling the common things that may happen..

paying monthly bills, hiring emergency plumbers/roofers/landscape people, etc.. anything that the board would agree to do if presented, could have a pre-designated agreement in place to make things easier.
DanielH1 (California)
Posts: 482
Posted:
"Unanimous consent" is allowed for some non-HOA Boards but, for states like California that have additional HOA open meeting laws like Davis-Stirling does, it seems not to be allowed for HOA Boards. Just one of those cases where HOAs have to play by somewhat different rules than non-HOAs.
MaryA1 (Arizona)
Posts: 7,043
Posted:
Suresh,

In AZ that would be a violation of the open meeting law. Doesn't FL also have an open meeting law for HOAs?
MaryA1 (Arizona)
Posts: 7,043
Posted:
Daniel,

Very true! That is why I said, in my original response, that this should only be used when an action must be taken but a quorum cannot be attained for a meeting.
SureshD
Posts: 268
Posted:
Your confusing two separate issues.

ALL MEETINGS are open.

But action can be taken without a meeting.

There are also provisions for emergency meetings which have separate (i.e. no) notice requirements.

If you (proverbial you) are concerned about ANY actions taken by the BOD at ANY time then just ask to review the HOA records in the way the law provides.
MaryA1 (Arizona)
Posts: 7,043
Posted:
Suresh,

If all meetings are to be open then it would be a violation of the law to conduct business w/o noticing a meeting, unless it was an emergency. The action w/o a meeting should only be used when a quorum of the board cannot be gathered and an issue needs to be acted upon. It should not be used to take the place of the board meeting in the open. The purpose of the OML is to give the members the right to attend all meetings of the BOD. But, of course, FL's open meeting law may be quite different than AZ's.
SureshD
Posts: 268
Posted:
Your opinions are noted but it is still legal in Fla.

By definition meetings would occur when a quorum of BOD members are present... ANyWHERE. The clause requires 100% vote or consent of all (redundant) BOD members, obvioulsly a higher standard that a simple majority of a quorum at a regular meeting.

In our case it requires 5 member votes as opposed to a (possible) 2-out-of-3 at a "regular" meeting.

Getting 5 members to agree to anything can be rare!
MaryA1 (Arizona)
Posts: 7,043
Posted:
Suresh,

The definition of a board meeting per the AZ OML is: a meeting occurs when a quorum of the board gathers to discuss assn business, whether action or a vote is taken or not. The members don't have to be physically present to meet thus meaning "meeting" thru email communicatons also applies. The requirements for taking an action without a meeting contains some gray areas. But, I do believe any qualified HOA attorney would tell you that this method of conducting assn business is NOT designed to take the place of holding a noticed board meeting. In states that do not have an OML, it may not make a difference, but in AZ, CA, FL, etc. it certainly may. As stated earlier, regardless of how the law is written it should not be used unless an action must be taken but a quorum of the board cannot be obtained.
SureshD
Posts: 268
Posted:
So you're saying it's allowed but YOU wouldn't do it... correct?

MaryA1 (Arizona)
Posts: 7,043
Posted:
Suresh,

Yes, in a way. In AZ that particular statute is contained in the nonprofit corp statutes. This is not addressed in the HOA specific statutes. So, although HOAs also look to the nonprofit statutes for guidance, because of the HOA OML laws, this particular nonprofit corp statute is a bit iffy. Of course that's my opinion. I could be wrong. However, HOA BOD's should always err on the side of caution, right?
RichardP13 (California)
Posts: 1,767
Posted:
Mary

I have a question. Our Bylaws and Corporation Code states as below. There is nothing in the Davis-Stirling Act in regards to this. It appears that voting in Executive Session and General Session can be by majority vote if quorum is present and only with the BOD present. An action without meeting appears to mean that a unanimous votes of ALL BOD's is required for the motion to pass. I am all for transparency and working within the OML of California, but there has to be a better way to conduct business within an HOA.

I have to assume that an unanimous vote is required because there isn't any discussion about the item to take action on. We have a situation where 2 BOD's are holding up a vote because they didn't get their way on wasting $14,000 to cover some bare spots in the Common Area. I believe rules should be simplified so there BOD are consistent on how they vote and conduct business. I believe that the Davis-Stirling Act should be incorporated to do just that instead of dodging in and out of Corporation Code to make rules.

(b) An action required or permitted to be taken by the board may be taken without a meeting, if all members of the board shall individually or collectively consent in writing to that action. The written consent or consents shall be filed with the minutes of the proceedings of the board. The action by written consent shall have the same force and effect as a unanimous vote of the directors. For purposes of this subdivision only, "all members of the board" does not include an "interested director" as defined in Section 5233, insofar as it is made applicable pursuant to Section 7238.

DanielH1 (California)
Posts: 482
Posted:
I suspect that unanimous consent is fundamentally incompatible with open meeting laws, even for emergencies.

I don't believe that a court would ever accept a Board's argument that (1) an emergency meeting, even if not properly noticed, was impossible to hold in any shape, form or fashion and (2) that unanimous consent was possible in the same situation. I just don't think that a court would ever be convinced.
MaryA1 (Arizona)
Posts: 7,043
Posted:
Daniel,

IMO, a court would look at what the action taken consisted of. If it was deemed to be an emergency and the board could prove they were unable to obtain a quorum, then the court may uphold the action taken w/o a meeting. As I've mentioned earlier, the AZ law does not specify when this type "action" is warranted but it is a nonprofit corp statute and regular corps do not have the same requirements as HOAs. It's also my feeling that an HOA should be very careful about using this method to conduct business when there is an OML to abide by. Incidentally, an HOA may conduct an emergency meeting w/o providing notice of the meeting and still be in accordance with the AZ OML.
MaryA1 (Arizona)
Posts: 7,043
Posted:
Richard,

How many board members do you have that would make it possible for 2 to hold up a vote of the BOD? If there are 5 board members and 3 vote "yea" and 2 vote "no" or abstain, then the vote is not being "held up" as 3 is a majority of 5 and the "yea" votes would prevail.

From what you have written, it appears that CA law regarding an action taken w/o a meeting is the same as AZ law. And, yes, a unanimous vote of the BOD is required in order to take the action. And, just like CA where an OML also exists, this statute is NOT contained in the HOA specific statutes, i.e. the Davis-Stirling Act. Because of this, IMO, an action taken w/o a meeting could very easily be challenged as being in violation of the OML. Of course it would depend upon what the exact action taken was.

I like to think the Legislature understands that BOD's must be given a means to conduct business other than during regularly scheduled and noticed meetings when an emergency occurs; however, they must also be mindful that members' rights must always be protected. Therefore, unless emergency conditions warrant taking an action, all meetings must be properly noticed so that any member so wishing may attend and speak.
SureshD
Posts: 268
Posted:
If I understand your above post it all "hangs" on the second half of your last sentence, i.e. the right for members to speak.

Intersetingly though Fla. does not grant the right for members to speak at a BOD meeting UNLESS the members have placed an item on the agenda by petition of 20% of members. Then ONLY on that item is speech guaranteed. (There is one exception and that is the annual "members" meeting)
RichardP13 (California)
Posts: 1,767
Posted:
Mary,

We have a Board of 5. The action was held up between meetings because a unanimous vote was required during the Action w/o Meeting and because 2 Board members didn't get three way in a vote to spend the $14K in Executive Session. BTW, all voting in this Association is done in Executive Session and never mentioned in the General Session, nor mentioned in the minutes. When I have asked both the Board and the PM about this all that is offered is silence. Are Bylaws state that any action taken must be posted in a prominent place in the Common Area within three days and consents shall be filed with the minutes of the proceedings.

As far as Legislature having a handle on the situation, too many times their actions are political motivated. One time they will look out for this group, the next time that group, when in fact they should just be doing the right thing.

If a Board decides they can't get together to make quorum, they usually revert to an Action w/o Meeting. Because one set of meetings required a majority vote and another a unanimous vote, there may be times when nothing can be done between Board meetings. I agree that this isn't the way to run an Association. Having a place to meet once a meeting has been noticed becomes a issue at times. We hold our regular meetings at a convent (former Western home of Al Capone). There are times when this meeting hall may not be available when a meeting is necessary.

Have any other suggestions?
MaryA1 (Arizona)
Posts: 7,043
Posted:
Richard,

It appears to me your BOD may be violating the CA OML and perhaps even the action w/o meeting statute. As I said earlier, if disputed in court, I believe the court would rule based upon what type action was taken, especially in view of the fact that HOAs in CA have an OML to abide by. Of course, that's just my opinion.

Our BOD meets at the local elem school and we have to pay a fee. My former assn (only 49 homes) met at board members' homes. Where to meet may pose problems for HOAs that do not have a community center where meetings can be held. Some members may object to meeting at board members' homes; however, even though members are permitted to attend, the board meetings are scheduled for the convenience of the board members, as they should be.

Frankly I see no good reason why a board cannot obtain a quorum to meet monthly. All that needs to be done is to poll the board members to find out what day of the week and week of the month are suitable for all board members and schedule the monthly board meetings accordingly. We have a 5-member board that meets monthly and it's rare that a board member is unable to attend. When a member chooses to run for a board position, he/she is making a committment to serve their community. Part of that committment is to attend the monthly board meetings. If a person cannot commit to one day per month then that person has no place being a board member.
RichardP13 (California)
Posts: 1,767
Posted:
Mary

To say that the BOD is violating OML is, well, an understatement. I mainly blame the PM's that manage this Association, although, bottomline, its is their responsibility to know the laws or at least where to look and not rely solely on the PM for complete guidance.

As far as meeting quorum, the Board has already made quorum, many times with just three members. The problem lies and I am sure hampers other HOA.s is in between meeting, especially when those require unanimous vote. We are trying to finalize the rewriting of the Bylaws, but because of the holdup of two members approvals have to be done on a monthly basis.

A new board will meet more often, but make sure we notice the membership. Again, what we are striving for is complete transparency. We do have a new qualification requiring Board members regular attendance at Board meetings.
MaryA1 (Arizona)
Posts: 7,043
Posted:
Richard,

Although most PMs are familiar with state laws and certainly should be familiar with the gov docs of the assn they manage, I don't know that it's their absolute resp. IMO, it's ultimately the resp of the board members as they have the resp to manage the assn per the docs. However, they usually also have the ability to delegate certain resp. to the PM and if it's written in the contract that they shall advise regarding state laws, then that's what they are bound to do. Actually the way it should be is that both the PM and the board members know the state laws and also what the gov docs require.

Exactly what actions require a unanimous vote, aside from the requirements of an action taken w/o a meeting? How can 2 members' votes hold up the finalization of the bylaws rewrite? Doesn't that just require a majority vote?

Regarding the requirement of board members to attend board meetings. My bylaws are silent on this; however this is what the bylaws of my former assn say:

"Except in the case of injury illness or similar excusable cirecumstnces, 4 consecutive absences from duly called regular meetings of the BOD shall automatically constitute a resignation by such absent director to be effective as of the conclusion of the last missed meeting. In the event a director ceases to be an owner, his directorship shall immediately and automatically terminate. No member shall continue to serve as director if more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of any assessments and such delinquency shall automatically consitute a resignation by such delinquent director on the 31st day of the delinquency."
TinoS (California)
Posts: 85
Posted:
New to some of this stuff...

What is the definition of "action" in the action without a formal meeting? I am on the board and we are discussing, mostly in email but also in informal gatherings with the other two board members, such issues as repairing water leaks, selecting reserve study companies, brain-storming but not deciding antenna policy, etc. - in california. Is this stuff all supposed to be done in a preannounced and open meeting for all members of the association. It would seem not, but I am not clear on the definition of "action".
MaryA1 (Arizona)
Posts: 7,043
Posted:
Tino,

"Action" is the act of doing something. In other words, taking an action means deciding whether or not to do something. Brainstorming is not an action and using the action w/o a meeting capability would be highly improper if the board was only brainstorming ideas.

CA has an open meeting law which says that all meetings of the board must be announced so that any member who wishes to may attend the meeting. Email communications are not specifically addressed, but IMO they would also be construed as a meeting if a quorum of the board is involved. It appears to me your board may be in violation of the CA open meeting law. I'm in AZ and our HOA open meeting law defines a meeting as any gathering of a quorum of the board when HOA business is discussed, whether any action or vote is taken or not. I don't know if CA's OML goes so far as to mean that a meeting occurs whether any action or voting is done or not. The AZ definition is not spelled out in the OML, but over the years several attorneys general have issued opinions on this.

It's not uncommon for a BOD to unknowingly violate the law. In many instances board members who are new to HOAs and don't know who to go to for advice may do this. In other words, anyone can make an honest mistake. But, when you know what the law is and continue to violate it, then you're asking for trouble. I suggest you and your fellow board members thoroughly review the CA HOA statutes which are called the Davis-Stirling Act. You can do this at:

www.davis-stirling.com/MainIndex/DavisStirlingAct/DavisStirlingAct/tabid/791/Default.aspx

RichardP13 (California)
Posts: 1,767
Posted:
Tino,

Below is the language from the Corporation Code dealing with Action Without Meeting. It will typically be exact language used in your Bylaws, it is with ours.

Corporations Code §7211. Board Meetings; Notice; Quorum; Consent to Act Without Meeting.

(b) An action required or permitted to be taken by the board may be taken without a meeting, if all members of the board shall individually or collectively consent in writing to that action. The written consent or consents shall be filed with the minutes of the proceedings of the board. The action by written consent shall have the same force and effect as a unanimous vote of the directors. For purposes of this subdivision only, "all members of the board" does not include an "interested director" as defined in Section 5233, insofar as it is made applicable pursuant to Section 7238.

To vote on an issue in either Executive or General Session a majority vote of the Directors constituting a quorum is required. Our PM interprets this section of the code to mean that the vote using an Action Without Meeting must be unanimous.

I could look at this and come up with reasoning to come to the conclusion that only a majority vote is necessary. The Action Without Meeting procedure is used when Board members can't agree to meet between regular Board meeting at a noticed special meeting. So they do a Action Without Meeting. To take action (vote) must be unanimous, but the actual vote for the action to be taken is a majority vote.

If you look at it long enough, you can come to different conclusions.
MaryA1 (Arizona)
Posts: 7,043
Posted:
Richard,

Sorry but your interpretation of this law is incorrect -- your PM is right. The action being taken must receive a unanimous vote of the members. That is clearly spelled out in the statute: "(b) An action required or permitted to be taken by the board may be taken without a meeting, if all members of the board shall individually or collectively consent in writing to that action." No where in the statute does it say a majority vote of the members is required. And no where does it state the board members must vote to use the action w/o a meeting. The statute is very clear and leaves no room or any other interpretation, IMO.

IMO, this should only be used when a quorum of the board cannot be met but an action must be taken. The action is not official until the last board member signs the action.
TinoS (California)
Posts: 85
Posted:
I am still unclear if making a board (three members on the board - 16 units in the association) decision about making simple maintenance or repair decisions, like which leak detection company to use to search for a leak, or making a decision about which company to use to repair the leak is something that by davis-sterling requires being made at an open board meeting? By your definition that type of decision is certainly an Action. You seem to imply that it is something that we (I'm on the board) need to decide at an open board meeting. True?

If you confirm that is it something that has to be done at an open meeting I will start my rant with the next posting.

RichardP13 (California)
Posts: 1,767
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By MaryA1 on 06/13/2010 12:11 PM
Richard,

Sorry but your interpretation of this law is incorrect -- your PM is right. The action being taken must receive a unanimous vote of the members. That is clearly spelled out in the statute: "(b) An action required or permitted to be taken by the board may be taken without a meeting, if all members of the board shall individually or collectively consent in writing to that action." No where in the statute does it say a majority vote of the members is required. And no where does it state the board members must vote to use the action w/o a meeting. The statute is very clear and leaves no room or any other interpretation, IMO.

IMO, this should only be used when a quorum of the board cannot be met but an action must be taken. The action is not official until the last board member signs the action.

Mary,

Take a trip over to the forum for Robert's Rule of Order. I asked the same question and got a different answer altogether. And these were from of their regular posters "experts". To vote, no matter whether it was a majority or unanimous, could be considered an "action" all by itself. I could argue that the same voting rules "the majority" should apply at all step of voting between Board members, or banish "Action without Meeting" altogether. Action without Meeting is not addressed in the Open Meeting Act of the Davis Stirling Act.

In our case the other option(s) would have been for calling a special or emergency meeting where the requirement to call the meeting rests in two board members if the President or VP refuse to call the meeting.
MaryA1 (Arizona)
Posts: 7,043
Posted:
Richard,

Voting on an issue us taking an action, and if this is being done outside a regularly noticed meeting, then it would be called taking an action w/o a meeting and that requires that: "all members of the board shall individually or collectively consent in writing to that action." meaning a unanimous vote is required in order to take the action. If the "experts" at the RRO forum thought differently, then IMO they're hardly "experts". As I said, the statute is worded very clearly.

I know the action w/o a meeting is not addressed in the OML, in fact I believe it isn't in the HOA statutes at all. In AZ it's found in the nonprofit corp statutes where open meetings are not addressed at all. That's why I believe it should be used sparingly in any state that has an HOA OML.
MaryA1 (Arizona)
Posts: 7,043
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By TinoS on 06/13/2010 2:51 PM
I am still unclear if making a board (three members on the board - 16 units in the association) decision about making simple maintenance or repair decisions, like which leak detection company to use to search for a leak, or making a decision about which company to use to repair the leak is something that by davis-sterling requires being made at an open board meeting? By your definition that type of decision is certainly an Action. You seem to imply that it is something that we (I'm on the board) need to decide at an open board meeting. True?

If you confirm that is it something that has to be done at an open meeting I will start my rant with the next posting.


Tino,

A board making the decisions you describe, whether they vote to take any action or not would definitely be defined as conducting assn business. Any time a quorum of the board meets to discuss assn business it is considered a board meeting and must be properly noticed. And, yes, these type decisions must be made at an open board meeting. Please review the portion of the Davis-Stirling Act pertaining to open meetings that I've copied below. You will note there are only a few issues that can be discussed in a closed session.

"(b) Any member of the association may attend meetings of the board of directors of the association, except when the board adjourns to executive session to consider litigation, matters relating to the formation of contracts with third parties, member discipline, personnel matters, or to meet with a member, upon the member's request, regarding the member's payment of assessments, as specified in Section 1367 or 1367.1. The board of directors of the association shall meet in executive session, if requested by a member who may be subject to a fine, penalty, or other form of discipline, and the member shall be entitled to attend the executive session."

TinoS (California)
Posts: 85
Posted:

We have a three person board in a 16 unit association. The three of us on the board are trying as best we can to take care of the place. We communicate by email or by phone. We also have a property management company that handles the dues, pays the maintenance and does the tax and other legal requirements.

We board members communicate multiple times a week to get things taken care of... I think there's been a lot of deferred maintenance that we are now starting to take care of. The idea that this is illegal and that we can only communicate during an open board meeting announced to all members weeks ahead of time is absolutely absurd and could never work. We need time to figure out what needs to be done, we need a back and forth to hone in on solutions and followup. Calling a meeting for every single Action is crazy. Just finding a date when all three of us can get together in the evening can be challenging, and frustrating when someone that says they will come calls at the last minute to say they can't. PLUS, where do we meet? with three people it's easy enough to meet in someone's home. Opening it up as a open board meeting is another story. With 16 units we don't have a common room for that.... we could meet in the pool shed - it holds 2 people if they are quite small and very thin) so that means renting a room from the public library for $100 each time.

The idea that the board can't meet or email each other to discuss the day to day management of the association is completely stupid. Another unworkable law.

I am not against open meetings of the board with as many members as we can get to attend them, and I believe we should have them on a quarterly interval and that we should use these meetings to get input from the members on issues that need to be taken care of and also for voting on issues that have a potential to change the place. But I can't see how having open meetings for each time the board discusses whether to fix a leak is in any way reasonable. This appears to be a very bad law that we will have to break. What in the heck do other associations in California do? Am I missing something?

MicheleD (Kentucky)
Posts: 4,491
Posted:
It seems you are unfamiliar with how to run meetings and what is to be discussed/handled at meetings if you are attempting to "work through" "actions" with the entire board in between board meetings.

We have board meetings once a month.

At each board meeting, one or another (sometimes 2) board members are delegated the responsibility of a specific issue or "action" item.

That person works through all the details, gets all the information together, gathers background materials, in other words, does all the leg work.

Then that "item" -- or as most boards refer to it -- Agenda Item is placed on the agenda and when the meeting is called (with a quorum), then the board discusses it in whole and either determines that more "legwork" needs to be done, or that a decision can be made -- in other words -- action taken.

We do often CC: other board members if we have FYI materials to pass around prior to the meeting.

But the issue or item is not "acted up" outside of a meeting.

I realize you are a small association. But it would be in your board's best interests to keep meetings open, place "action items" on the agenda, and assign or delegate issues or items to individual board members to research, etc., between meetings.

If there is an emergency (say, a "leak") then with luck your board will have already addressed what to do (who to call) in case of a "leak" and a simple "action without a meeting" can deal with that. Then at the next meeting the board can discuss the action and address any issues associated with it going forward.

It's really not that hard to do. It can get tedious sometimes, but it's very important to make an effort to at least work within the laws of the state you are in as well as work within the parameters of your controlling documents.

By the way, welcome to the world of "red tape." It really does have a purpose. Though there are times it doesn't seem to!
CathyC8 (South Carolina)
Posts: 8
Posted:
The Action without a Meeting is for FORMAL meetings only NOT INFORMAL meetings. Understand in Roberts Rules the definition of a Meeting and an INFORMAL Meeting. Here in our state/city many HOA communities are vacation properties. Therefore, homeowners do not live onsite. We have scheduled annual and quarterly meetings open to all homeowners. However, we have INFORMAL meetings, which is when a Board is under 12 and Committee meetings fall under an INFORMAL meeting. These meeting follow all the guidelines of meeting and voting that the FORMAL meeting has but the entire Association/Homeowner members are not invited --they are not OPEN meetings.

SO Action without a Meeting does not pertain to INFORMAL Board Meetings and Committee Meetings.
RichardP13 (California)
Posts: 3,868
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By CathyC8 on 08/29/2015 8:27 AM
The Action without a Meeting is for FORMAL meetings only NOT INFORMAL meetings. Understand in Roberts Rules the definition of a Meeting and an INFORMAL Meeting. Here in our state/city many HOA communities are vacation properties. Therefore, homeowners do not live onsite. We have scheduled annual and quarterly meetings open to all homeowners. However, we have INFORMAL meetings, which is when a Board is under 12 and Committee meetings fall under an INFORMAL meeting. These meeting follow all the guidelines of meeting and voting that the FORMAL meeting has but the entire Association/Homeowner members are not invited --they are not OPEN meetings.

SO Action without a Meeting does not pertain to INFORMAL Board Meetings and Committee Meetings.

Would you be so kind as to explain the difference between an informal meeting and formal as it pertains to this topic.

BTW...Why would you go and dig up something over 5 years ago?
GenoS (Florida)
Posts: 4,276
Posted:
Old thread, CathyC8. Original poster was in Florida and Florida law prohibits action by "written consent". My HOA used to do things that way until the board decided to follow the law. A few years late, perhaps, but they did finally stop doing it.

Bottom line: consult your own governing documents and the laws of your state.

I agree with Richard, there's no such thing as FORMAL vs. INFORMAL board meetings. Best to start a new thread.
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
Cathy,

Welcome to the forum. From your posts, I can see you have some good ideas and opinions.

Please keep in mind that it's best not to reactivate old threads. Since laws change, what may have been good advice then (in 2010 in the case of this thread) may be bad advice now.

Since reactivating threads places the thread on the first page of the forum, this can become confusing for those who fail to notice the dates. This could lead to more issues vs. resolving issues if the old advice is now bad advice due to changing laws.

Again, welcome to the forum.

Tim
PitA
Posts: 1,416
Posted:
..... if all members of the board shall individually or collectively consent in writing to that action.


ALL directors (not merely a quorum) must sign UNANIMOUSLY said resolution.

if a 5 member board - 5 signatures
if a 3 member board - 3 signatures
if a 7 member board - 7 signatures

Since it was a UNANIMOUS agreement an 'open meeting' would have served no purpose.
The resolution requires recording and possibly publishing anyway.
CfD (Virginia)
Posts: 265
Posted:
Not sure about other states, but in Virginia I believe the determining factor is discussion. If, outside of a properly noticed meeting the board members unanimously "consent" to a particular decision on an issue without the need of being persuaded or without any contrary argument, then that can be properly done when all board members agree in writing. Should be done extremely rarely, and only on issues that cannot reasonably wait until the next scheduled board meeting.

The discussion between board members is what I believe the statues here are concerned with.
CyrstalB (Maryland)
Posts: 457
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By n/a on 06/13/2010 12:11 PM
Richard,

Sorry but your interpretation of this law is incorrect -- your PM is right. The action being taken must receive a unanimous vote of the members. That is clearly spelled out in the statute: "(b) An action required or permitted to be taken by the board may be taken without a meeting, if all members of the board shall individually or collectively consent in writing to that action." No where in the statute does it say a majority vote of the members is required. And no where does it state the board members must vote to use the action w/o a meeting. The statute is very clear and leaves no room or any other interpretation, IMO.

IMO, this should only be used when a quorum of the board cannot be met but an action must be taken. The action is not official until the last board member signs the action.

A board must have a "quorum" in order to vote on anything, and should not be misconstrued that if you don't have this quorum, then you can vote on something without a meeting. Two different animals.
RichardP13 (California)
Posts: 3,868
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By CyrstalB on 09/06/2015 5:33 AM
Posted By n/a on 06/13/2010 12:11 PM
Richard,

Sorry but your interpretation of this law is incorrect -- your PM is right. The action being taken must receive a unanimous vote of the members. That is clearly spelled out in the statute: "(b) An action required or permitted to be taken by the board may be taken without a meeting, if all members of the board shall individually or collectively consent in writing to that action." No where in the statute does it say a majority vote of the members is required. And no where does it state the board members must vote to use the action w/o a meeting. The statute is very clear and leaves no room or any other interpretation, IMO.

IMO, this should only be used when a quorum of the board cannot be met but an action must be taken. The action is not official until the last board member signs the action.


A board must have a "quorum" in order to vote on anything, and should not be misconstrued that if you don't have this quorum, then you can vote on something without a meeting. Two different animals.

Would you mind explaining?
CathyC8 (South Carolina)
Posts: 8
Posted:
Thanks Tim --Being new here please educate me. When you say reactivate a thread is that done by simply replying?
Much appreciated...Cathy
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By CathyC8 on 09/06/2015 9:03 AM
Thanks Tim --Being new here please educate me. When you say reactivate a thread is that done by simply replying?
Much appreciated...Cathy

Yes.

Replying to an old thread (one that hasn't had any replies for awhile) reactivates it (i.e. places it back on the first page of topics).

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