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Posted By RobertR1 on 01/26/2010 4:30 AM
Tim, all in a days discussion..............no problem, I appreciate your interest.
Regard your last paragraph: If the 3 member board can speak for the Board, do you agree then that the majority of a five member board is now two out of a three member board? Is that ok? If so, suppose two members are husband and wife or two co-owners of one unit?
Robert,
It would depend on what the Association Documents say.
If the wording is "the board will consist of 5 directors"
I would then have to say that a quorum would be 3 out of the 5. If two seats are vacant, then all three board members need to attend to conduct business.
If the wording is "the board will consist of a minimum of 3 and a maximum of 5"
It's a toss up. I could see an argument that there is now a minimum of 3 directors making a quorum being 2. I can also see an argument that the Association voted for 5 directors therefore, regardless of the vacant seats, a quorum would be 3.
Since the situation above would come down to the interpretation of the written requirement, depending on who you talk to you will have different interpretations. I would see the membership, or a concerned member, to have the following options:
1. Rely on the common sense of the Board and hope they truly want to work for the community vs. personal agendas.
2. Lobby for a bylaw amendment to have something in writing addressing such an issue.
3. Take the issue to a court of law for a ruling.
I believe the issue of husband and wife, owner/co-owner, etc. being on the board boils down to what is legal based on the Associations governing documents and/or State/Federal law.
Again, what is legal is not always what is considered to be what is the right thing to do.
Tim