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JimM15 (Texas)
Posts: 9
Posted:
The current board has been going around on this for over a year. This is what the bylaws state;

Quorum. The presence at the meeting, in person or by proxy, of members entitled to cast a majority of the votes of each class of the membership will constitute a quorum for authorization of any action, except as may otherwise be provided in the declaration, the articles of incorporation, or these bylaws.

Does this mean we have to have 50% + 1 of the total members that are entitled to vote (everyone who is current), or does this mean that the majority of those who are entitled to vote who show up.

We have 1183 properties with less then half built on, and this has made it impossible to get enough entitled owers to the meetings.

I appreciate any help with this.

If I have left any information out that is important please let me know and I will provide it.

Jim

Jim Mahoney
RogerB (Colorado)
Posts: 5,067
Posted:
Jim, it means 50% +1 of the votes of each class of members. Class A members are owners of the lots on which homes have been built (or purchased). Class B members are the owner of the undeveloped lots (the Developer). Often Class A members get 1 vote per lot whereas the Class B members (Developer) often gets 2 or 3 votes per lot. When the Developer has 2 or 3 votes per lot they dictate achieving a quorum. For example, if there were 783 Class A (developed lots) and 400 Class B (undeveloped lots) with the Class B (Developer) having 2 twice as many votes per lot then the Class B (Developer) has 800 votes and the Class A members (like you) have 783. So you can see the Developer totally controls having a quorum till over 2/3 of all lots are sold.
JimM15 (Texas)
Posts: 9
Posted:
Thanks Roger,

The developer only has 6 or 7 lots that he has required, so we are not concerned with him hijacking the meeting. One thing we are going to try is, the BOD created a resolution that states any member that does not pay by January 15 will have there voting rights suspended, this would take them out of the numbers of "members entitled" to vote. We are hoping that we can get a majority of those who have paid though proxy or in person and be able to get a vote to amend the bylaws to only need 10% of the entitled members to make a vote. The bylaws state under BOD powers, "Suspend the voting rights and right to use of the recreational facilities of any member during any period in which such member is in default in the payment of any assessment levied by the association."

Any thoughts?

Thanks,
Jim

Jim Mahoney
MicheleD (Kentucky)
Posts: 4,491
Posted:
The board does not need the membership in attendance to conduct a board meeting. They only need a quorum of the board.

At least that's how it is in all the boards I've ever served on.

Plus, why would the board need that resolution if the bylaws already give them the right/power to suspend the voting rights?

If you go down your membership list and mark off those who are in default then they do not even receive notice of meeting.

TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
Jim,

Lets keep it simple and say that there is only one class of members and this voting class equals one vote per lot.

That said, it really becomes simple.

At a meeting of the members:

1183 properties = 1183 votes. A quorum would be met when you have 592 of those vote represented (be they in person or by proxy).

If out of those 1183 lots, 183 of them are behind in assessments and have had their voting privileges suspended then there would only be 1100 lots entitled to vote.

1100 lots entitled to vote = 1100 votes. A quorum = 551

If your talking about Board or Committee Meetings the number of those entitled to vote changes.

5 Directors sit on a Board = 5 votes. Quorum = 3.

Not having a quorum does not prevent a meeting from happening. It does prevent business from being approved (elections, bylaw changes, etc.).

I would suggest that your organization changes the quorum requirements for the future. Perhaps something like:

For general meetings: 10% of those entitled to cast a vote
For Changes to documents: 51% (or keep current wording)
For Assessment increases larger then the Board can authorize: Same as documents
For Special assessments: same as bylaws.

This way, elections and normal business can still continue even if you only have a small amount of owners interested in the dealings of the Association. This also protects the members when changes to what they agreed to is voted on.

Our documents, I live in VA, also have the following language, which you may want to consider:

"If, however, such quorum shall not be present or represented at any meeting, the members entitled to vote thereat shall have power to adjourn the meeting from time-to-time, without notice other than announcement at the meeting, until a quorum as aforesaid shall be present or be represented."

"If the required quorum is not forthcoming at any meeting, another meeting may be called, subject to the notice requirement set forth . . ., the required quorum at any such subsequentmeeting shall be one half (1/2) of the required quorum at preceding meeting. No such subsequent meeting shall be. held more than sixty (60) days following the preceding meeting."

We have fortunately never had to use this ability, but it's nice to know there are options if a vote is truly needed and a quorum isn't showing up.

Hope this helps,

Tim
RogerB (Colorado)
Posts: 5,067
Posted:
Jim, if the Developer only owns 6 or 7 of 1183 lots that will make it easier to change the quorum requirement in the Bylaws. Since you stated less than half the lots are developed, who currently controls the Board? I would presume it is current homeowners since the Developer may no longer be in control.

Following are steps you can take to amend the quorum requirement in the Bylaws:
1) get the names and addresses of the owners of the undeveloped lots;
2) establish a date, time, location, and call a special association meeting (list all agenda items include amending the Bylaws since only items listed can be acted on at a special meeting);
3) send notice of meeting with a proxy and/or a mail in ballot on the proposed new quorum (with qualification it can also be counted towards a quorum) to all members;
4) hold meeting using proxies and ballots to meet quorum requirements and amend the Bylaws.

With 1183 lots and over half not developed I would try for a quorum requirement of no more than 5% (60 lot owners).
JimM15 (Texas)
Posts: 9
Posted:
For board meetings only 2 of the 3 directors need to be present, it has always been the general meetings that we could never get the required majority of current members to attend. In the past years (property owners took control in 2006) we have done letters and even called trying to get enough to make the majority. We have 5 sections each section has a different set of deed restrictions, and we also have 3 different billings schedules. Our goal is to make the deed restrictions and billing schedules uniform.

Thanks for your input,

Jim

Jim Mahoney
RogerB (Colorado)
Posts: 5,067
Posted:
Jim, with less than half the owners living on site it will be difficult to impossible to amend the Declaration of CC&R deed restrictions. You can try to do this by mail by listing each amendment and getting a signed vote for or opposed. I would include a suscict letter explaining the need for each proposed amendment and include a self addressed stamped envelope. But realize that no response is equivalent to a no vote since you will need approval of xx% of all homeowners of record.

Setting up the billing schedule to be the same for all 5 sections should be easy. It can be done by a vote of the Board members unless your governing docs state otherwise.
JimM15 (Texas)
Posts: 9
Posted:
Roger, The billing methods are in the deed restrictions, and we need the member vote to change those. I shouldn't have used the word "schedule", I should have said billing methods. One section is set up to pay a flat rate for lots of <1.5 acres and another flat rate for >1.5 acres, then we have other sections that are set up $xx.xx per acre pro-rata for the size of the lot. The BOD just wants to get all sections on the same sheet of music. Our deed restrictions for each section are all different, an example section 1, 2, and 5 do not allow any signs (including homes for sale), but section 3, and 4 do (with approval of the ACC).

Thanks again from everyone,

Jim

Jim Mahoney
MicheleD (Kentucky)
Posts: 4,491
Posted:
Jim, it's not unusual in our neck of the woods to have multiple sections of an HOA with different covenants for each section.

My own development has 9 sections, with 9 sets of deed restrictions.

We looked into merging them all into one master set a few years ago.

Even if we could get membership input/votes, it would still be a daunting, and likely expensive, task.

So we just work with what we've got.

It's not great, but it's doable.
RichardP13 (California)
Posts: 1,767
Posted:
Tim

I live in California and have similar language in our By-Laws that pertain to Quorums. Here is my question. At an annual mmeting to elect three board members, if your quorum requirement is 159 members, 39 sent in ballots, no proxies and 18 of the 39 that mailed in ballots actually attended the annual meeting. What would you do next would you allow the 18 present to vote to adjourn to a new date that reduces the quorum requirement to 79?

Thanks

TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
Richard,

The statements are similar in reading but are actually allowing two completely different things.

If the meeting is adjourned "from time to time . . until a quorum is represented" you should think of it as suspending the meeting vs. calling a new meeting. When the meeting is suspended to achieve a quorum the original quorum requirement never changes.

The statement that allows the quorum to be cut in half requires the President (or who ever is running the meeting) to conclude that a quorum can not be met and the initial meeting is ended. The Board, and not the members, would then set a new date/time and comply with any notice requirements and time frames established. At this new meeting (probably several days later due to notice requirements), the quorum needed would be cut in half from the original.

Using your example, the 18 people who showed would have the full rights of anyone else who showed and may vote in deciding to adjourn and reassemble to see if the quorum can be met. This would also be the case if they assigned a proxy and decided to attend the meeting. If the member attends - the proxy assignment is nullified, as there is no need for a proxy.

Did I explain it well enough (I don't always do)?

You should check the exact language in your own documents to see if this interpretation applies to you.

Tim

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