When is somebody considered a homeowner?

In our little corner of the world we define/clarify a homeowner as the owner of record on the deed. So, yes, in our neck of the woods, you would have to actually be listed on the deed to be considered the "homeowner" that is eligible to be on the board, if our governing documents restricted directors to association members.

If you are not listed on the deed, you are not a member of our association, even though you may be married to the person listed on the title/deed. If you're name isn't on there with him/her, then you are not a qualified owner/member of the association.

However, our directors are not required to be association homeowners/members, so a spouse of a member could run for our board of directors.

Karl,

When you say, "According to Florida law I own half of the house since we are married", is that because FL is a community property state? If yes, that only means that you have claim to half of her home (a and perhaps other assets she owns), it doesn't mean you "own" half of the home. The owner of property is the person whose name is on the deed. I would be surprised to learn FL law says you are an "owner" of your wife's property. If you are serious about running for a board position, perhaps you can convince your wife to add your name to the deed of "her" home.

My assn CCRs states ". . .each and every Owner automatically shall be a Member of the Assn" and that ". . .the association has received written notice and is provided satisfactory proof thereof in the form of a recorded Deed or rcorded transfer of title." In other words, to be an "owner" your name must appear on the deed to the property or on a recorded transfer of title. If you research your CCRs (look under membership) there should be a like article.