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BarbaraD6 (Florida)
Posts: 347
Posted:
In the best interest of the Association we need to change management companies( I have discussed the many issues on prior threads)

Our governing docs state we need a vote of 75% of members to change management.

We're lucky if we get 30 people to vote out of the 196 units.

One board member asked if we can change the compamy anyway as it is in the best interest of the Association.
Ideas welcomed.
Barbara
BrianB (California)
Posts: 2,820
Posted:
without reading your docs, I must trust they say what you claim. However, i am surprised that they even mention management companies at all. THat's outside what I have seen in my experience.

That said, it sounds like you are stuck. Does Florida allow Proxy voting? If so, create proxy ballots and campaign like heck to get votes. Send letters to all members informing them of how absolutely critical it is to vote. Remind them of why the change needs to take place, use $$$ and hit them in the pocketbook. You must make it important to them (WII-FM) to get them interested.
PeterB1 (Florida)
Posts: 257
Posted:
Barbara,

We have a 75% requirement as well. Last year we tried (for the third time) a significant addition to the Bylaws. Everyone was in favor of the change after it was explained. BUT, we had not been able to gather the votes.

30 days before the annual meeting, we (the Board) started calling and tracking this vote. We asked for proxies and tallied those. We called those who did not return proxies. We even picked some up at the homeowner request.

We did get the 75%. Members of the Board felt strongly about the issue and went the extra mile to gather the votes.
RobertR1 (South Carolina)
Posts: 5,164
Posted:
Barbara,
I think Peter is on the right track here. We have a 2/3rds requirement and have been able to get that.

Not knowing some of Peters specifics or Barbara's let me suggest, education is the way to start. Web sites, Newsletters, community interaction functions, pool parties, yard sales all those kind of things might work. Take a page out of the Walmart book and keep the name of your association in front of the members. Advertise. Advertise.

E-mail blasts help. Get one member to bring one member to a Board meeting.

And while you are trying to get this super majority to elect a Community Management Team, at the same time as that special meeting, call another at the close of the first to change your by-laws to require the Board to hire a Management Co. That is a plain dumb rule anyway. The members elect the Board, the Board is responsible to the members. The Board elects the Officers, the Officers are responsible to the Board. The Board hires the Property Management, how can the owners be responsible for the Management Team, they did not elect or select them. The Board did, therefore, they are responsible.
BarbaraD6 (Florida)
Posts: 347
Posted:
You all have great suggestions! It's frustrating when you are trying to do the best thing for everyone and they could care less.
Keep the great ideas coming.
Barbara
AnnaD2 (Florida)
Posts: 960
Posted:
Ok....I'm going to go out on a limb here. But being in Florida for 30 years, I've never heard of there needing to be a vote (whether it be 2/3 or 75% or anything else) of the ENTIRE association to change management companies. Every association I've ever heard of gives that responsibility (as part of the duties)to the Board of Directors; not every person who lives there.

I've seen such wording when it's still under control of the Developer for certain things....but this?

I could be wrong but I've never heard of the members having a say in such an action. As always, I'm learning.
GlenL (Ohio)
Posts: 5,491
Posted:
Barbara, could you post the relevant section requiring the H/O vote?

Studies show that 5 out of 4 people have problems with fractions
DonnaS (Tennessee)
Posts: 5,671
Posted:

Barbara,

Like Anna, I have never heard of the members having to vote to change a management company. We really do need to read this part of your documents. Where would this be located? In bylaws or where? The 75% number is very high for such an item. HI ANNA!
RobertR1 (South Carolina)
Posts: 5,164
Posted:
Anna, I happen to agree with both you and Donna. However I am of the opinion that a lot of CC&R's R are traded around from one developer to another or one lawyer to another and if somewhere is the process a crazy requirement like having the owners vote of the Management co. gets included, it happens because someone else wrote it in there and they just play copy cats and tweak what really concerns the developer and don't pay a lot of attention to other stuff.

I believe our direction for the Board to hire and fire Management types is in our by laws under duties of the BOD.
BarbaraD6 (Florida)
Posts: 347
Posted:
All,
I didn't post the bylaw on this thread because I had posted it on a prior one. I wanted this thread to focus on ways to get the votes and what happens if you can't get a vote when it hurts the Association.

Bylaws Article III 3.20 Management
...After the class "B" control period terminates, the Association may not terminate any management contract, or retain a new managing agent, without the approval of Members representing a majority of the Association's total Class "A" votes.

We asked for a legal opinion on this and were told the Association has to vote not the Board members.
Barbara
MaryA1 (Arizona)
Posts: 7,043
Posted:
Barbara,

Can your bylaws be amended by a vote of the board members or do you require a member vote. I would say an amendment is in order to remove the 3.20 section of Article III. Obviously it would be much easier if the board could accomplish this on their own. If a member vote is required then the board will need to convince them that this amendment will result is far less hassles for the board afterall it's the board who must deal with the manager. Mail-in ballots are much easier to obtain votes especially if a self-addressed, stamped envelope is provided. I much rather prefer this method to proxies as it allows each member to cast their own vote.
RobertR1 (South Carolina)
Posts: 5,164
Posted:
Barbara,
Just an observation .. nothing more but doesn't your Article specific only a majority is needed?
To clarify for other readers, at this point all you have are Class A members? I would assume this is correct.

You still have the problem of getting rid of this requirement, if it does meet the legal test and you state it is legal under your state laws. So, let's assume it is legal. Then all the advice here still stands. First get fifty one % of the owners to vote to amend your documents to allow for BOD to hire and fire. Do this with a called special meeting. At this meeting make a motion to do the above get the majority and close the meeting. Immediately open another special meeting and add an amendment to give the BOD authority to hire and fire. All should take ten minutes tops. Each special meeting by definition does not allow for discussion of any other subject other than the announced and noticed as directed by you documents. If necessary, call a Open Board meeting or an annual meeting after changes are made and do association business. If you feel your President can't handle these meetings, have him appoint someone that can get this done. Will take some leadership and direction from Board.

This is a general outline to get your problems cleared out and back on track.
Actually the preparation to call the meetings, get the interest up to attend meetings, knocking on doors or innovative methods of calling for votes will be the big part. When it comes time for the meeting, if the road is paved before hand, it should be a snap. Lots of work, no doubt, but doable.
BarbaraD6 (Florida)
Posts: 347
Posted:
Sorry, we need a majority to change management.
Listed below is amendment change
...This declaration may be amended only by the affirmative vote or written consent, or any combination thereof, of Members representing at least 75% of the Association's total Class "A" votes..
Yes all members are class "A"
I appreciate all your ideas
Barbara
GlenL (Ohio)
Posts: 5,491
Posted:
Barbara the BOD needs to decide on what changes they want to make either just the MC or the covenant also and just get out the vote. This might even consist of hiring a couple of people to walk door to door and either get the H/O's proxy or their name on a petition/ballot to change the covenant; they can start weeks before the actual day of the vote.

Studies show that 5 out of 4 people have problems with fractions
BarbaraD6 (Florida)
Posts: 347
Posted:
Glen,
How long is a proxy good? I thought I had read or heard 90 days.
Barbara
MaryA1 (Arizona)
Posts: 7,043
Posted:
Barbara,

You posted the bylaws provision that requires the members to vote to change the mgmt co, so it's the bylaws that would need to be amended not the declaration. Please let us know what the amendment requirement is for the bylaws. Oftentimes they can be amended by the BOD w/o a vote of the members.
RobertR1 (South Carolina)
Posts: 5,164
Posted:
Mary,
Just to be clear: Correct me if I am wrong. The amendment requirements that Barbara posted were from the Master Deed. You say the requirements may be different to amend in the By-laws. In this case the by-law requirements would be less stringent than the Declaration. Can the By-laws over-rule the Master Deed (Declaration)?
RichardP13 (California)
Posts: 1,767
Posted:
I belong to an HOA in California. The board just changed Management companies last month without any vote of the homeowners. I plan to run for a BOD position at the annual meeting, but was curious as I saw some posts here say that 2/3 to 75% vote was needed to make such a change. What document would I find the language for changing management companies in particular. All of our documents are date 2000 and 2001.
RichardP13 (California)
Posts: 1,767
Posted:
If the by-laws state that 75% of the mortgagees are required to allow the board to terminate management companies and go self-managed. Can the board get the members to amend that rule?
RobertR1 (South Carolina)
Posts: 5,164
Posted:
RichardP,
It is never listed as % of mortgagees. Some owners don't have mortgages.

The 75% figure or any other figure is usually referenced in the Master Deed and/or By-laws. It can be taken from some kind of State statute or it can be dreamed up by a developer that had the CC&r's written.

If, as you state, the Board can terminate the management co., they don't need to members to do anything.

If, you are actually quoting your By-laws or what have you, you need to amend your documents.

I suspect you are playing loose with your post and your documents or anyone's state what you posted.

Your answers are contained in this thread, if you can find the question.
GlenL (Ohio)
Posts: 5,491
Posted:
Welcome Richard, as Robert said before his meds failed as long as it's not in your CC&R's (Covenants, Conditions & Restrictions) you don't have to worry about it. Since you're in CA you will also need to read and have a working understanding with the Davis-Stirling act. One of the best places I've found for that is davis-stirling.com run by a CA law firm. Not only do they explain the law in English but they link to the relevant sections so you can see them in bureaucratic double talk.

Studies show that 5 out of 4 people have problems with fractions
GlenL (Ohio)
Posts: 5,491
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By RobertR1 on 09/28/2009 10:24 PM

I suspect you are playing loose with your post and your documents or anyone's state what you posted.

Your answers are contained in this thread, if you can find the question.

Robert, before you go on the offensive with a newbie and accuse them of making things up, I suggest you re-read the thread:
BarbaraD6: Our governing docs state we need a vote of 75% of members to change management.
PeterB1: We have a 75% requirement as well.
RobertR1: I think Peter is on the right track here. We have a 2/3rds requirement and have been able to get that.

Studies show that 5 out of 4 people have problems with fractions
RobertR1 (South Carolina)
Posts: 5,164
Posted:
Glen,
This is what was posted:

If the by-laws state that 75% of the mortgagees are required to allow the board to terminate management companies and go self-managed. Can the board get the members to amend that rule?

I said I don't think the documents said that as stated.

I still don't. Do you?

I am asking for what his documents say.

As far as the 2/3rds, that is what ours is and we can get that. Some can't get 2/3rd's, let alone 75%.

Glen, why do you pick this kind of stuff up and make an issue of it?

Now, in order to answer you, I end up telling the newbie and making a point of it, that he did not state the documents correctly. That is your conclusion I was going on the offensive and remarks that cast doubt on my motivation for my answer. I have no desire to argue with you every time you think I am not responding in a manner that you don't approve of. You add a tremendous knowledge base to this site Glen, you are sharper, brighter and very astute in you state HOA references, much more than I. I contribute a little bit along the way.........I am not and will not post here to cross swords with you. Why don't we agree to cut each other a little slack.
MicheleD (Kentucky)
Posts: 4,491
Posted:
I think it's highly possible that the documents might specify 75% of the "mortgagees".

Some mortgages might require the association to be professionally managed.

The trick will be in finding all homes with mortgages. Like you said, it's possible that many homes don't have mortgages anymore.

So let's say there are 100 homes. Only 50 have mortgages. So all you would need would be 75% of those mortgagees to agree to self-manage? That would be roughly 38 "yeas," right?

Of course, it appears that you wouldn't need those votes at all if you were just CHANGING management companies. Only to terminate and self-manage. Right?

BarbaraD6 (Florida)
Posts: 347
Posted:
Mary,
I will have to research this.
Thank you
Barbara
BarbaraD6 (Florida)
Posts: 347
Posted:
Mary,
I will have to research this.
Thank you
Barbara
KyleB (Ohio)
Posts: 17
Posted:
Better read your Declaration and By-Laws. Most Board Members and owners misread the sections governing the voting on various items. 75% to change the By-Laws. 75% to remove a member of the Board Usually just to approve routine items just a quorum of those assembled to vote, Board controls increase in dues with no vote by owners. Board members are usually deficient in their knowledge of state law and By-Laws Our association suffers because neither By-Laws or state law allows for removal of board member. KyleB
MaryA1 (Arizona)
Posts: 7,043
Posted:
Robert,

Barbara posted the requirements to amend the declaration (CCRs); however, the provision in question is contained in the bylaws. Barbara needs to find out what the requirements are to amend the bylaws. In my assn's the bylaws can be amended by a vote of the board w/o member involvement. If this is the case in Barbara's assn, then the requirement that the members vote to hire or fire the mgmt co can be removed from the bylaws by a majority vote of the board.

Each governing document has it's own requirement to amend; whether one governing document overrules another doesn't enter into it.

The bylaws are at the lowest level in the hierarchy of gov docs. The order is: CCRs, Articles of Inc., bylaws, board adopted rules
KyleB (Ohio)
Posts: 17
Posted:
To change what? Usually apathy prevents anything from being changed. Major changes require a 75 to 90% of the owners to vote. Most of the time this is impossible if the association is large.Only a major catastrophe can get owners to become involved IE: embezzlement of funds. KyleB
RobertR1 (South Carolina)
Posts: 5,164
Posted:
Mary,
Your: Each governing document has it's own requirement to amend; whether one document overrules another doesn't enter into it.

Below is clipped from my By-Laws.

ARTICLE X - AMENDMENTS AND CONFLICT

Section 1. Bylaws. These Bylaws may be amended by a vote of not less than seventy-five percent (75%) of the Percentage Interests of the Council at a duly constituted meeting only for such purpose, in strict accordance with the Master Deed. Any amendments shall be set forth in proper form and duly recorded. Each and every Owner of a Condominium Unit by accepting a deed therefore thereby agrees to be bound by and benefit from any such amendment hereto.

Section 2. Conflicts. In the event of any conflict between the provisions of the Master Deed and the provision of these Bylaws, the provisions of the Master Deed shall control.

************************
Doesn't this establish that the requirements of the Master deed to amend the Master deed are going to be the requirements to amend the by-laws?

GlenL (Ohio)
Posts: 5,491
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By KyleB on 09/29/2009 2:10 PM
Board members are usually deficient in their knowledge of state law and By-Laws Our association suffers because neither By-Laws or state law allows for removal of board member. KyleB

Kyle in one of your posts you mentioned that you are in a condo so O.R.C. 5311 applies.
5311.08
(B) The unit owners association shall be governed by bylaws. No modification of or amendment to the bylaws is valid unless it is set forth in an amendment to the declaration, and the amendment to the declaration is filed for record. Unless otherwise provided by the declaration, the bylaws shall provide for the following:
(1)(a) The election of the board of directors of the unit owners association;
(b) The number of persons constituting the board;
(c) The terms of the directors, with not less than one-fifth to expire annually;
(d) The powers and duties of the board;
(e) The compensation of the directors;
(f) The method of removal of directors from office;
(g) The election of officers of the board;
(h) Whether or not the services of a manager or managing agent may be engaged .

Studies show that 5 out of 4 people have problems with fractions
MaryA1 (Arizona)
Posts: 7,043
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By RobertR1 on 09/29/2009 4:14 PM
Mary,
Your: Each governing document has it's own requirement to amend; whether one document overrules another doesn't enter into it.

Below is clipped from my By-Laws.

ARTICLE X - AMENDMENTS AND CONFLICT

Section 1. Bylaws. These Bylaws may be amended by a vote of not less than seventy-five percent (75%) of the Percentage Interests of the Council at a duly constituted meeting only for such purpose, in strict accordance with the Master Deed. Any amendments shall be set forth in proper form and duly recorded. Each and every Owner of a Condominium Unit by accepting a deed therefore thereby agrees to be bound by and benefit from any such amendment hereto.

Section 2. Conflicts. In the event of any conflict between the provisions of the Master Deed and the provision of these Bylaws, the provisions of the Master Deed shall control.

************************
Doesn't this establish that the requirements of the Master deed to amend the Master deed are going to be the requirements to amend the by-laws?


No! I believe the phrase "in strict accordance with the master deed" is referring to the procedure for calling a special meeting for the purpose of voting on an amendment to the bylaws. There should be no provision in the master deed stating how the bylaws are to be amended, meaning what the vote percentage is and whether the board alone can amend or if a vote of the membership is required. The amendment procedure outlined in the master deed would only refer to amending the master deed, unless it states otherwise. I've never seen, nor heard of, a master deed which outlines the procedure to amend the bylaws or the articles of inc., but of course that doesn't mean there isn't a master deed out there with that provision in it. I don't like to say "never" as it will always come back to bite me!

What Section 2 means is if there is any provision in the bylaws that conflicts with a provision in the master deed, the provision in the master deed prevails.
BarbaraD6 (Florida)
Posts: 347
Posted:
Mary this is what I have found.
Declaration Article I 1.3 Governing Documents
If there are conflicts between Florida law, the Declaration, the Articles and the By-Laws
Florida law, the Declaration, the Articles, and the By-Laws (in that order) shall prevail.

Declaration Article VI 6.1 Function of Association
.....The Board shall be responsible for management of the Association and may contract with a property manager for such purposes.

By-laws Article III 3.20 Management
The Board may employ a professional managing agent or agents, at such compensation as the Board may establish, to perform such duties and services as the Board shall authorize and are other within the scope of the Board’s authority. The Board may delegate such powers as are necessary to perform the manager’s duties, but shall not delegate policy-making authority or the obligation to adopt a budget.

…….the Association may not terminate any management contract, or retain a new managing agent, without the approval of Members representing a majority of the Association’s total Class “A”

By-Laws Article VI 6.6 (b) Amendment
Except as provided above, these By-Laws may be amended only by the affirmative vote or written consent of Members representing at least 67% of the total Class “A” votes in the Association.
Barbara
MaryA1 (Arizona)
Posts: 7,043
Posted:
Barbara,

In reading the provisions you've posted, it could be interpreted that the bylaws are contradictory to the declaration, in which case what is stated in the declaration would prevail. If I were on the board I would ask that a resolution be adopted to interpret those provisions and state that the declaration prevails and a membership vote is not required to terminate and/or retain a mgmt co. However, if the board feels there is no conflict then it would be wise to amend the bylaws in which case a 67% vote of the members is required. I would strongly recommend a written consent, which could be mailed in, in lieu of ballots which may not be allowed to be mailed in. It all depends upon what your bylaws say about casting ballots.

BTW, I can see no good reason why the members should have to vote on this. All that does is impose a hardship on the assn -- we all know how hard it is to get members to vote on anything!!!
RobertR1 (South Carolina)
Posts: 5,164
Posted:
Mary,
Your post makes good sense to me. It seems we just went over the same thing with someone else.

I think I endorsed what you said then as now and suggested that the original documents be tracked down in the court house and make sure that some of this stuff was not just accepted over the years. I can't see any reason for this kind of thing to be in there except maybe could have been inserted by the developer in order to keep his selected management in place.
Barbara: How old is your association and when was turn-over? Your office or manager or Board should have an up to date copy of your documents and a record of any amendments made during the years. If no amendments or revisions are noted then the original document should match the current copy.

I am like Mary, I can'e see the sense to this kind of provision.
BarbaraD6 (Florida)
Posts: 347
Posted:
Mary and Robert,
I agree with you Mary I'm so glad I found that in the Declaration.
Robert, the Declaration was stamped in 2002 and I think the homeowners took over in 2005 or 2006.
I haven't seen any amendments about this issue.
Barbara
RobertR1 (South Carolina)
Posts: 5,164
Posted:
Barbara,
Don't your association have a manager or an office or a Board or someone that has kept records from day 1.

That is why I said to go to court house and check for original.

It is not a issue about what you have seen it is an issue of where and how was your documents managed historically. Someone knows and there are records somewhere. I would want to see the originals filed at court house and go from there. I would also insist that your board/manager/management company provide me with a complete set of documents with all amendments and exhibits.

You are absolutely entitled to all this info.

Why would the association take over from the developer with such a crazy provision anyway. It does nothing for the association but create problems.
BarbaraD6 (Florida)
Posts: 347
Posted:
Robert,
I am on the Board and the only changes made were about signs,motor vehicles and towing guidelines. I will look further for the originals filed in court.
Do you agree that the Declaration would supercede what the by-laws said?
Barbara
RobertR1 (South Carolina)
Posts: 5,164
Posted:
Barbara,
I certainly agree this is what the organizational chart implies and demands.
There has to be structure that serves State law and intent has to be demonstrated, and behind all the dubious parts of your documents, that seems to shine through.

To me, it appears there was language added about who controls the management that seems out of bounds. The requirement that the members hire and fire the manager is suspect also because it just is not a good business practice. It renders the Board somewhat impotent and restricts efficient operation as mandated by the election of the Board by the members.

Just an opinion of course. I would also from now on include somewhere in your Board procedural Manual that a statement be included requiring annual review of your governing documents.
MicheleD (Kentucky)
Posts: 4,491
Posted:
On the other hand, the intent may have been to force transparency from the board to their fellow association members and reduce the potential for a conflict of interest by any board members.

It probably sounded good in theory, but in execution it's nearly impossible to carry through.
RobertR1 (South Carolina)
Posts: 5,164
Posted:
Michele,
Consider from what we know, the documents have not been amended, therefore the developer was the one that decided to include language such as this. The owners didn't have a say. I suppose it may be possible for a developer to consider how he wants the development to be run after he is gone, but, reason says that language was inserted to benefit someone. You suggest it was to benefit the members. I ask why does this seem to be uncommon as opposed to common practice?
MaryA1 (Arizona)
Posts: 7,043
Posted:
Robert,

It's not uncommon for a developer to include language in any of the gov. docs that will benefit him. However, in this case, the bylaws requirement that the members must vote to hire or fire a management co certainly is not a benefit to the develooer. It's more of a benefit to the members, even though the members really have no idea whether or not the manager is doing a good job. Maybe this was one of those instances where liquor was being served when the developer decided what to put in the docs!
GlenL (Ohio)
Posts: 5,491
Posted:
I think I have to agree with Robert on this one, knowing how hard it is to get homeowners to vote, it seems designed to protect the MC.

Studies show that 5 out of 4 people have problems with fractions
RobertR1 (South Carolina)
Posts: 5,164
Posted:
Mary,
Not knowing the history of this particular HOA and agreeing it is not uncommon for the developer to add language for his benefit (why else would he add it), maybe we can't solve the unsolvable. But, I am surprised to see you state this action would benefit the owners. It certainly would not benefit the association as evidenced by the problems they are having. Especially when this mechanics of hiring and firing management has been assigned to the BOD, as evidenced by this discussion in prior threads. Of course what appears to be consensus from one of these threads is just opinions.
MaryA1 (Arizona)
Posts: 7,043
Posted:
Robert,

I based my opinion on Barbara's messages stating the bylaws say the members must vote on hiring or firing the mgmt co. The reason I say this benefits the members as it gives the members the authority to perform this function that is normally a function of a BOD. Anytime the members have the right to vote on a particular issue it is a benefit to them because they are exercising some authority in the assn.

Of course we can only surmise why the developer chose to write the bylaws this way and our suppositions really mean nothing and don't change anything. Maybe we all just like to "hear" ourselves talk! LOL
BarbaraD6 (Florida)
Posts: 347
Posted:
Thank you all for your opinions on this issue,
Barbara
BarbaraD6 (Florida)
Posts: 347
Posted:
Most of the Board seems to agree that we can vote for the manager now. However now the President is stating she believes that the Board does have the right to contract but the members have to vote for us to be able to hire or fire.
We are just lay people trying to follow the rules,but its turing out to be a puzzle.We are all starting to second guess ourselves on everything.
What if we think we are using good business judgement and we are wrong?
Barbara

RobertR1 (South Carolina)
Posts: 5,164
Posted:
Barbara,
You are up early.
If you think you are using good business judgment and you are proven wrong, you pay the penalty........about that simple.

If your board feels you should have an amendment change, they have to do what is necessary to accomplish this......period. That is why they are the Board. BOD don't always make good decisions, nearly all rulings by a board is making a little leap of faith. Nature of the beast and as soon as all the directors accept this, it amounts to jumping into the pool.

Why does most of the Board feel they can vote for directors......now....and didn't feel that way before? You, may be trying to be all things to all people. Play the cards you all hold, turn them all up on the table and lets have a vote.

It may be pertinent that your original question concerned members not being interested enough to vote and the Board seems to have come down with the same disease.
BarbaraD6 (Florida)
Posts: 347
Posted:
Yes Robert I am up early today.
After finding that the Declaration stated the Board could vote for the manager, we thought we found the answer. The Board was ok until the President raised the issue I posted. So now we're confused again.
My thinking is to follow the Declaration and ignore the by-law.
thanks
Barbara
RobertR1 (South Carolina)
Posts: 5,164
Posted:
I see I referred to "directors" instead of Managers or management companies.
My mistake.

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