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MarciiaB (New Mexico)
Posts: 36
Posted:
We have a townhouse development of 64 units with 31 of those units now being used as rentals. It's lowering our property values immensely. We have several people who own multiple rental units and we are trying to amend our covenants to require simple majority votes because we can't get the rental owners to respond. One of those amendments is to limit future sales of property to owner occupied only, no rentals.
Our covenants do not specify that an owner has 1 vote for every unit owned and our By-Laws state the Board can determine the eligibility and qualifications for membership, but nothing about votes. So, our board passed a resolution that an owner only has 1 vote no matter how many units they own....We want to know how other HOA's handle this situation. Realistically, one person could purchase 51% of the units and have all the voting power if they had 1 vote per unit.
TracieS (Colorado)
Posts: 460
Posted:
Yikes. I'm not sure your HOA did the right thing... MY documents specifically state that there is ONE vote per unit...

I would imagine, and I'm hoping there are responses coming, there are OTHER WAYS to manage the problems with a high number of rentals other than taking away their PURCHASED voting rights... If I were one of those rental owners with a large number of votes, I would be considering legal action... Just my thoughts...
MarciiaB (New Mexico)
Posts: 36
Posted:
None of our documents even mention voting rights, which is why the board took the action they did.
TracieS (Colorado)
Posts: 460
Posted:
Not trying to be argumentative, but if none of your documents mention voting rights...then how have you voted all along? How did you all get the right to vote, even for BOD, if nothing mentions voting rights? If nothing mentions voting rights, then how do you guys plan to amend your documents? How is membership in your association determined?

Am I misunderstanding? I just find it really hard to believe there's nothing there (not calling you a liar)... My documents are over 25 years old, and they specified voting rights... I can't imagine new documents neglect this very important aspect of community living...

How is your association not a despotic regime...since with no voting rights, wouldn't your developer/builder still control the association? Ohhh...maybe that's it! Are you still under Declarant control?
MarciiaB (New Mexico)
Posts: 36
Posted:
No, we took over 2 years ago. We've never had more than 15 -20 owners ever vote and only 12 at a meeting, plus we've never tried to amend anything before. The only thing we've done is vote on board members. Most of our landlords live elsewhere and don't bother to return proxy letters or attend meetings, which is why we're trying to lower the requirements, so the folks who live here and have to watch their property values drop even further, have a better representation. We're aware that our amendments will probably fail, but we will keep trying.
MichaelK11 (Texas)
Posts: 432
Posted:
I agree with TracieS -- the governing documents are defective if they don't specify voting rights.

How were the governing documents constructed two years ago? Were they taken from templates? Was a lawyer involved in starting the HOA? How many were at the initial meeting to found the HOA?

On the one hand, nothing you do is probably legal. On the other hand, if no owners find anything objectionable, your amendments won't be contested. If they are, then you are pretty much back where you were before the HOA started.
JeffT (Maryland)
Posts: 83
Posted:
If your docs do not saying anything about voting rights, look at the state code for corporations. That should have some guidelines. The state code will trump the governing documents. This is assuming that your HOA is a corporation.
MichaelK11 (Texas)
Posts: 432
Posted:
That sounds right; I should have thought of that. Do some states have specific statutes for corporations that are HOA's, distinct from the general case?

As corporation acts pertain to HOA's, would each unit be default count as a "membership" or "share"?
TracieS (Colorado)
Posts: 460
Posted:
That's my guess (default is that each unit counts as one "share").

Could you imagine if Dell Corporation (or any other corp...I'm just looking at my Dell computer...) decided that no matter how many shares of stock someone owned, they only got one vote?

Really though...voting rights could be designated in any number of different locations within the documents, and in MY documents, they seem to build on each other. The Articles of Incorporation detail a little bit about voting rights, then the Bylaws, then the CC&Rs... All three of my docs mention voting rights and how members get to cast their votes.

Do your docs say anything about proxies? If so, maybe around that location will be details about voting rights...
TracieS (Colorado)
Posts: 460
Posted:
Posted By MichaelK11 on 08/11/2009 1:07 PM
Do some states have specific statutes for corporations that are HOA's, distinct from the general case?/div>

YES! Some states have basic Non-Profit Corp laws and other states have BOTH Non-Profit Corp laws AND laws that are particular to HOAs (or other like associations...). Then, as with my state, there are laws that apply to Non-Profit Corps and laws that apply to HOAs, but some HOAs will not fall under the reach of those special laws.

Ahhh...the legal field!
MicheleD (Kentucky)
Posts: 4,491
Posted:
If someone owns 51 percent of the properties, then he/she deserves 51 percent of the vote.

To restrict it to one vote regardless of number of units owned is. . .inappropriate.

It may even be illegal in your state.

MarciiaB (New Mexico)
Posts: 36
Posted:
Thanks for the input. I looked through our documents and found the Articles of Incorporation, which none of us were even aware existed. It states 1 vote per unit. So even though the developer promised no more than 15 units could be rentals, those folks who bought here expecting single family owner occupied housing are now living in an apartment complex. Our home values continue to drop and the only people making money are the slum lords with rental units.
JohnO6 (Georgia)
Posts: 424
Posted:
MarciiaB -

You have the proverbial "tough row to hoe" on this .. .. .. Here's what I believe you need to do first - throroughly read and understand your governing documents (the covenants and by-laws) of the HOA.

Pay particular attention in looking for (others, I'm certain, will supplement items I may forget):

1). What is the quorum for member meetings.
2). What is the percentage of members that must affirm any proposed changes to the covenants?
3). What is the percentage of members that must affirm any proposed changes to the by-laws?
4). Is the Board of Directors permitted to create, change, and enforce supplemental rules & regulations beyond what is contained in either the covenants or by-laws?
5). What represents a quorum for a meeting of the Board of Directors?
6). Are any of the articles in the covenants or sections of the by-laws in conflict with Federal, State, or Local laws?

Once you've got this "lay of the land" as to where you stand, you can then consider imposing restrictions on additional units being rented. You'll almost certainly not be able to restrict currently rented homes from either a practical (number of votes necessary to amend documents) or possibly legal standpoint. You will likely have to "grandfather" in all currently rented homes until ownership changes.

Much more to discuss on this topic, but I certainly don't want to be writing War and Peace here
SusanW1 (Michigan)
Posts: 5,202
Posted:
Our residential subdivison has one vote per member, no matter how many improved parcels are owned.

No ONE owner is more powerful than the other. No ONE owner can hold the entire HOA at its mercy.

One vote per member - Th-th-that's all folks!

RogerB (Colorado)
Posts: 5,067
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By SusanW1 on 08/11/2009 4:14 PM
Our residential subdivison has one vote per member, no matter how many improved parcels are owned.

No ONE owner is more powerful than the other. No ONE owner can hold the entire HOA at its mercy.

One vote per member - Th-th-that's all folks!

If the member of the owner of several units only gets one vote then do they only have to pay one assessment no matter how many units they own? Otherwise, I recommend changing your bylaws to one vote per unit to make them reasonable in case this matter ever went to court.
MicheleD (Kentucky)
Posts: 4,491
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By SusanW1 on 08/11/2009 4:14 PM
Our residential subdivison has one vote per member, no matter how many improved parcels are owned.

No ONE owner is more powerful than the other. No ONE owner can hold the entire HOA at its mercy.

One vote per member - Th-th-that's all folks!


The one who has the lot votes. If that ONE has more than ONE lot, he/she gets that many votes. It's not about "power." It's about fairness. If I have to pay an assessment for EACH lot, then I am eligible to have a VOICE equal to the number of lots I own.

Good thing the majority of HOAs are not of your HOA's mold.
MaryA1 (Arizona)
Posts: 7,043
Posted:
Marcia,

I agree with the majority here who say it should be one vote for each unit/low owned. Now that you've "found" the articles of inc and see that it states, "1 vote per unit", you should be aware that the BOD's rule is null and void. The BOD cannot adopt a rule that is contrary to the gov docs! Case closed!!

Mostly everyone's property values are dropping and it has nothing to do with the number of rentals in our communities. It has to do with the economy!

However, if you are in a condo complex, you should be concerned about the number of rentals. If it is too high a potential buyer may not be able to get funding to purchase (i.e., HUD or FHA funding). If your condo is on the HUD approved condo list, then 80% of the units must be owner-occupied. If you're not on the approved HUD condo list, then a lender may try to get a "spot loan" in which case at least 51% of the units must be owner-occupied. You may want to check out the info at the following website: www.easyfha.com/fhacondoproject.htm

The FHA rules only apply to condominiums. If yours is a planned community (single family homes) the rules do not apply.
MarciiaB (New Mexico)
Posts: 36
Posted:
The board has already been advised of the voting requirement. We realize the economy is the main cause of dropping property values, but we've also been told by 3 banks, that rental units depreciate faster than most owner occupied and as a result, when they sell, they sell for less and that lowers the value of all the other units in the development. Our goal is not to end rentals, but to maintain a number that allows the owners who live here to be assured their property values won't drop further as a result of having too many rentals.
MicheleD (Kentucky)
Posts: 4,491
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By MarciiaB on 08/12/2009 9:19 AM
but we've also been told by 3 banks, that rental units depreciate faster than most owner occupied and as a result, when they sell, they sell for less

I would have to see that in writing to believe it.

My daughter owned a rental home. When she decided to sell it, she did what all of us who want to sell a home do, she painted, made sure the carpet was clean, fixed any problems like leaky gutters, etc., and then put it on the market.

There is no way, when she sold it, that people, or the banks from which they were financing, had any clue its rental history.

She sold it for an amount comparable to all the other homes that sold in the area and made quite a decent profit.

TracieS (Colorado)
Posts: 460
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By MaryA1 on 08/12/2009 8:46 AM
Marcia,

I agree with the majority here who say it should be one vote for each unit/low owned. Now that you've "found" the articles of inc and see that it states, "1 vote per unit", you should be aware that the BOD's rule is null and void. The BOD cannot adopt a rule that is contrary to the gov docs! Case closed!!

The FHA rules only apply to condominiums. If yours is a planned community (single family homes) the rules do not apply.

What are your thoughts on the FHA rule applying to TOWNHOMES? I'm in Colorado...there's no legal definition of TOWNHOME in our statutes.

Thanks!
JohnO6 (Georgia)
Posts: 424
Posted:
Tracie -

My understanding (others correct me if I'm wrong) is that there are only fee-simple properties, condominiums, and cooperatives. A townhome community could arguably be any one of the three.

Your answer will be found in the nature of the actual property conveyed to each owner, not it's physical structure.
While there are some differences in the nature on common property (limited use common property, etc), I don't think that is relevant to the discussion.
MaryA1 (Arizona)
Posts: 7,043
Posted:
Tracie,

IMO, townhomes should fall into either the category of a planned community or a condo. If yours falls into the condo category then the FHA ruling would apply.

C each unit owner has an undivided interest in the common areas and the assn is resp. for maint of the exterior of the unit

Planned community = each property owner maintains the interior and exterior of his home and is resp for maint of his whole lot; the assn owns the common areas
EllenS1 (Florida)
Posts: 1,148
Posted:
Marcia,

I find it hard to believe there is no language in your docs regarding voting rights. Even if there isn't you might check to see what State stutes have to say on the matter. While I sympathize with you I believe you are treading on dangerous grounds and doubt the investors will sit still for it.
EllenS1 (Florida)
Posts: 1,148
Posted:
Oops! I meant to say statutes.

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