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HB (Oregon)
Posts: 143
Posted:
Our Financial Penalties Resolution (FPR) clearly outlines how violation are handled and how fines are assessed. For "nuisance" violations that may occurr on occasion, such as a party or a dog barking, the homeowner is sent a Courtesy Notice, then a Compliance Notice, and then assessed a $250 fine.

We have only had to do this once before because the threat of a steep fine usually resolves the issue. Last year, 3 neighbors contacted the management company to complain about a nuisance, and then again on several other occasions. The homeowner continued to allow the violation to occur and was fined. The violation has not occurred again since the fine was assessed almost 2 months ago.

Our management company now suggests that for "community relations" we allow the homeowner to do certain things to make sure the nuisance does not happen again in exchange the Board will reduce or eliminate the fine. I have not had to deal with this type of thing before. My opinion is that we just want the violation to stop (which it has) . . . our main objective is not to make money or to penalize anyone. On the other hand, this has gone on for far too long and I think we should remain consistent with the FPR.

One of my fellow Board members is against making any concessions for this homeowner, one hasn't said anything and I am on the fence.
I fear that waiving the fine for this homeowner may be unethical (??) and create more problems later.

Any experience with this type of thing or advice??

GlenL (Ohio)
Posts: 5,491
Posted:
It is not unethical to reduce or forgive the fine and we have on occasion done it. If you do I would have it in writing from the H/O if the violation re-occurs then the entire fine would become due and payable at once in addition to any additional fine.

Studies show that 5 out of 4 people have problems with fractions
KirkW1 (Texas)
Posts: 1,665
Posted:
If forgiving a fine is unethical, then our entire legal system in the States is unethical. There are so many places where a fine (or other penalty including jail) can be waived or reduced. And eliminating this aspect is what gives rise to stories of the injustice caused by "zero tolerance policies."

I won't comment on if this is an appropriate time to do so. I simply don't know. But the issue should not be simply dismissed without consideration.
RobertR1 (South Carolina)
Posts: 5,164
Posted:
HB,
For us to give good advice on this site is impossible. We give opinions that may or may not turn out to be good. In all fairness the more information you provide the better the advice. How many unit, how many on board, how old is you complex, a little history of your complex, are you financially solvent and presently compatible with your M/C, and anything else.

Since you are talking about a suggestion or whatever from your M/C, you all have to consider this. Is this advice good management for you all (the Board decides that, not the M/C). Some M/C's are so good you can take any advice as solid information, some, not so much.

The argument your Board has to face is: "will dissoling this fine help us or harm us or maybe you all can't decide."

If you can't decide, err on the side of protecting your association. The Board is challenged to make qualified, knowledgeable, fiduciary actions. The Board has to set the Benchmark and remember that benchmark carries over for years and years, consider that.

It really is the Board's decision and I hope you make it wisely and always protect and use your association as the Holy Grail.
JohnK3 (Pennsylvania)
Posts: 967
Posted:
We are self-managed; 21 SFDs.

Our docs provide for a $20 fine if quarterly dues are 30 days late. If a Member is 30 days late, our Prez sends an email reminder which has always resulted in the payment being made. We - the other two of us on the BOD - have also given him the power to waive this fine if payment is received following his email reminder, which he has always done.

Works for us. The quality of mercy, and all that poetic stuff.
SusanW1 (Michigan)
Posts: 5,202
Posted:
Your board should have a VERY good reason for waiving this fine.

This could be a slippery slope for collecting any future fines and MAY be mis-construed as favortism.

You will lose some teeth in your enforcement if the reason is not clear and with merit.

RobertR1 (South Carolina)
Posts: 5,164
Posted:
John.
Not disagreeing with what you do but considering Susans valid points, why don't your Pres send out the letter at thirty days. remind the owner there is a fine after 60 days of $50.00.

Personally I doubt you can legally subvert your documents without an amendment. But if you are going to do it and you say the fine is not the reason for people paying up, the Pres's letter is, then delay the fine until sixty days. Or something.
JohnK3 (Pennsylvania)
Posts: 967
Posted:
Our docs give the BOD virtually unlimited power to determine what we feel is in the best interests of our HOA. We feel our current procedures (re: fines) are in the best interests of the HOA. We've had no complaints - possibly because we only discuss the occasional late payment issue with the Owner, as opposed to broadcasting it to the entire Membership.

And as noted, it accomplishes the desired result. If at some juncture it doesn't, then we'll worry about slippery slopes and favoritism.

We don't get our johnsons standing at attention by being "tough" with our Members (as it seems some BODs do).

RobertR1 (South Carolina)
Posts: 5,164
Posted:
JohnK,
I appreciate your interests in managing your association and don't mean to imply one sise fits all.

And of course I am sure you are aware that your present managemnt will not be around forever. Understanding that just about means the next board can exert these unlimited powers in the opposite direction that the present board is taking. I really have a problem or a suspecion that unlimited powers to any governing body will breed problems.

This is not bad mothing you all, you are doing what you think prudent and as you say it works...........more power to you.

As to my Johnson, I am unsure what provoked that.
HB (Oregon)
Posts: 143
Posted:
I think that is my main concern really - creating a problem for ourselves later if we have to fine someone else (deciding who gets a waiver for a fine and who doesn't). The financial penalties are our only recourse to get action.

This particular homeowner received several notices because of his dog barking and snarling aggressively against the fence whenever it heard a noise. He denied it was his dog (his dog was only an inside dog he said) until several neighbors confirmed and video taped it occurring. It is a large dog and several homes share the common fence. The dog barks, growls, snarls against the fence . . . it is pretty intimidating and prevents the homeowners sharing that common fence to enjoy their backyards (which are very small). I have witnessed it as well.

Anyways, we fined him after many attempts to stop the barking. I believe he is giving the MC an earful over having to pay the fine and that is why the MC is asking us to waive the fine. The suggestion was to eliminate the fine if he takes the dog to obedience classes and/or gets a dog bark collar.

I think it will be difficult to monitor this situation if we give the ok and agree to this . . .I also think I just want to be done with it and get it off my plate to deal with more important issues.
JohnK3 (Pennsylvania)
Posts: 967
Posted:
HB,

Based on this additional info, I'd carry on with the fines and whatever else needs be done to eliminate the issue (which is quite different than someone being late with their dues). As for your MC getting an earful - tough darts. That's part of their job, yes?
SusanW1 (Michigan)
Posts: 5,202
Posted:
And call Animal Control.

Any dog that snarls at people and prevents people from using their own back yards is a menace.

SusanW1 (Michigan)
Posts: 5,202
Posted:
And call Animal Control.

Any dog that snarls at people and prevents people from using their own back yards is a menace.

HB (Oregon)
Posts: 143
Posted:
The dog has not been an issue since the homeowner received the fine (approx. 2 months ago). If he had just been pro-active in working with the HOA PRIOR to receiving the fine that would have been nice! He could have easily proposed the obedience classes and bark collar when he received the first two notices and we would have been more inclined to work with him to resolve the problem.

On another note - the reason I am not just going with the suggestion from the MC, is that we have lost some trust in them in the last year. They are too quick to placate homeowners BEFORE speaking with the Board which seems to be undermining the job that we need to do to remain consistent with the CC&R's.

Thanks for all your input!
TracieS (Colorado)
Posts: 460
Posted:
Well, if the dog's not an issue anymore...I wouldn't see a problem rescinding the fine...BUT, allowing the BOD to reinstate or even increase the fine should the dog become a problem again. (Get the owner to sign something).

Since fines are really (in my humble opinion anyway) a way to get people to comply...well, problem solved. Sometimes, it is good to smooth things over for the purposes of community harmony.

Should another owner present with the same situation someday, and that same owner wants the exact same thing, well, I would jump off that bridge when I came to it. At this time, you could say you're doing what is best for the HOA (community harmony), but in the future, you could change your mind. Shoot, BODs change ALL the time, so what one BOD thought was appropriate could/would/should change every few years (pick the *ould that applies...)

Kind of off the subject, but related....

You may also want to question your insurance agent. Mine (and I'm getting ready to switch) for the association has said that he's recommending our association get dropped because we don't have a "problem pet" rule... Are your rules appropriate for your association? Does your insurance agent/lawyer feel that the rules are in place appropriately to protect the association to the best of its ability?
RobertR1 (South Carolina)
Posts: 5,164
Posted:
Tracie,
Certainly the issue of insurance coverage is important. But if you want to build a case for the Board to arbitraily select what covenants they enforce, I think this would not be a good one.

NOW, it seems evident from the latest post the dog is only part of the problem and the real issue is likely with the M/C.

From his last post it seems this M/c is becoming a bit of a problem and is starting to try and have the tail wag the dog, so to speak. It happens and it is fortunate that there is some recognization of what is going on. It there is some supecion (apparently) of the M/C playing favorites that puts a different slant on the story. It is also confusing to me that all these problems with the dog has disappeared sort of overnight. I think it takes a long time to change a dog with aggressive habits.

But all the above just my opinion and it appears they have made a choice to let it slide. That's fine, but, if this really in a special favor case, you are setting precedence for the wrong reason
TracieS (Colorado)
Posts: 460
Posted:
I agree. I was stating my thoughts on the dog issue, which brought the insurance issue to the forefront of my gray matter. Lots of ins, lots of outs, lots of what-have-yous (slippery slope) when deciding which covenents NOT to enforce.

Also, I'm one of those property managers who wags the tail of the dog...otherwise, our dog wouldn't even get up off the floor when a stranger bursts in to rape/kill us all!!! I don't play favorites though... Mine is a special situation (not recommended!).

I also am curious about how the dog became a "good" dog overnight... Is he kept inside now? Bark collar? Magic wand?
HB (Oregon)
Posts: 143
Posted:
I don't think insurance is an issue . . .I will look into it though. (I am a licensed property/casualty insurance agent).

Not sure what they did with the dog, but as soon as they were fined it wasn't a problem again and hasn't been since.
SusanW1 (Michigan)
Posts: 5,202
Posted:
Tracie - what is a "problem pet" rule that would affect insurance?

Roaming dogs is a problem in our sub, in spite of the local dog ordinance.

TracieS (Colorado)
Posts: 460
Posted:
Susan,

I think the insurance agent was talking about an "aggressive" pet policy, and I just couldn't think of the wording. We don't have a problem at all with roaming pets opf any type. Actually, our association doesn't have a pet problem at all! Barking is common, but dogs bark. Poo on the lawns is a problem, but I don't think we're unique there.

Warning: I'm getting ready to probably open a big can of worms... Not trying to be argumentative...

Our insurance agent wants us to prohibit owners from having Pit Bulls, Akitas, and other "aggressive" dogs. Well, I'm completely against it as a person, but as the PM, I am looking into the policy to protect the asset (association). My research (undocumented) is that the dog breed that bites people most often is actually the Cocker Spaniel. I HATE "discriminating" against animals.

Regardless, the window of opportunity is gone to institute a new rule, as an owner just got a Pit Bull puppy.
MicheleD (Kentucky)
Posts: 4,491
Posted:
Yes, but the pounds of pressure from a cocker spaniel's "bite" is not as strong as a pit bull's. Plus, a cocker is less likely to continue attack and "shred" its prey.

The problem I have with that requirement is that even municipalities are finding they are running into constitutional issues by singling out specific breeds, especially ones called "pit bulls," since that "breed" doesn't really have a formal classification.

In other words, it's actually more a mix of breeds.

Now, many of those municipalities have amended their definitions and wording to pass the appeals test, but I'm not sure an insurance company would.

For example, the Washington Supreme Court ruled that a Yakima, Washington, ordinance was not unconstitutionally vague because it specified the dog breeds that together fit the definition of "pit bull". On the other hand, an earlier case in Massachusetts resulted in a pit bull ban being annulled because the ordinance, as it was written, did not adequately define what a "pit bull" was.

So, which definition will the insurance company require you incorporate? And how does it know that your municipality or state does not already have such a law on the books? In which case your "restrictions" would be redundant.

TracieS (Colorado)
Posts: 460
Posted:
I really appreciate your comments Michelle. I agree, and I do not want our association to have such a policy in place. Not only because of potential legal challenges, but also because it goes against how our community "feels" (we're really casual and allow a significant amount of owner freedoms). My brother has pit bulls, and I love them to death. However, I understand their genetic desires to kill things. Really, aren't all dogs still "wild" on some level? Of course, some more than others...

We're going to dump our insurance agent, for this and a number of other reasons, so what he thinks is an appropriate pet policy doesn't really matter anymore, at least to me.

Finally, while my state/county/muni DOES have pet policies, they do NOT single out any particular breed of dog. Dangerous dog is defined as a dog who has bitten, has exhibited the tendency to bite/threaten or has been trained to be a fighting dog (or just is a fighting dog - which we have a LOT of here). So, "suspected" dangerous dogs, simply due to breed, are NOT prohibited in my state/county/muni.
BrianB (California)
Posts: 2,820
Posted:
Tracie: a couple things to ask/think about/trigger conversation

1) ask your insurance agent (or anyone else) for EVIDENCE to back up their reasoning/claim, and make sure the evidence is from a credible source. As you point out, the most common dog biter is a cocker spaniel (very popular/common dog, high strung, often in families with children). Perhaps the evidence can be $$ spent on lawsuits, or # ER treatments per year. Whatever it is, make the person presenting the argument show evidence. And, remember that the plural of anecdote is not no matter how many "stories" a person has about something does not mean they have evidence.

2) It has been said the purpose of the fine is to get compliance. Ask the board if that is true, what is the purpose of the courtesy letter and the compliance notice? And, why have three things who's purpose is exactly the same? Why not simply one thing? (I don't know the answer, but it's a challenging question. If nothing else, it may cause folks to rethink "purpose" attached to things).

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