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DanaH2 (Georgia)
Posts: 7
Posted:
Can the builder legally represent the neighborhood if he forclosed on the remaining lots and abondonded the subdivision? He now owns NO property in the neighborhood. Can he legally keep his position as the declarant and call the shots as head of the HOA/declarant?
MaryA1 (Arizona)
Posts: 7,043
Posted:
Dana,

I would think that once the foreclosures are complete and the properties have been retitled to the new owners, he can no longer claim to be the declarant. The members should elect a new board of directors (made up solely of property owners) and obtain all the books and records from the former declarant. Also make certain to take over the bank accounts!
RogerB (Colorado)
Posts: 5,067
Posted:
Dana, the declarant is the person who files (declares) the Declaration of CC&Rs. That is not necessarily the Developer but usually is when the original Declaration is filed. Once the homeowners in the association gain control (such as when the developer owns no property) they have the power to remove the developer from any office which may controlling the HOA. His only control could be as a Board member. Read your Bylaws to determine the procedure to remove him from the Board of Directors.
DanaH2 (Georgia)
Posts: 7
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By RogerB on 02/24/2009 12:55 PM
Dana, the declarant is the person who files (declares) the Declaration of CC&Rs. That is not necessarily the Developer but usually is when the original Declaration is filed. Once the homeowners in the association gain control (such as when the developer owns no property) they have the power to remove the developer from any office which may controlling the HOA. His only control could be as a Board member. Read your Bylaws to determine the procedure to remove him from the Board of Directors.

Thanks so much for your reply. What if he owns the common areas?

There are several references to the the Declarant havng rights and what not, but Section 11.5 outlines when the Termination of Declarant's Rights are. They shall "cease and be of no further force and effect upon the earlier of: (a) the date that the Declarant no longer owns any property in the Community and no longer has the right to unilaterally annnex additional property to the Community as provided here in and a certificate of occupancy has been issued for a dwelling on each Lot in the Community; or (b) the date of recording by Declarant in the real estate records of Fulton County, Georgia of a written instrument terminating all of Declarant's rights hereunder."

If a new builder comes in to finish the subdivision (15 out of 41 lots), would the builder (declarant) be more inclined to turn the HOA over to them? Especially if they pay off his HOA loan and unpaid taxes on common areas?
GeorgerwilliamsW (Indiana)
Posts: 975
Posted:
I think if these questions are more than academic--i.e. you are seeking to take some kind of action or make a recommendation, I urge you to seek experienced legal counsel and not rely on the opinions posted here.

Your initial post stated that the developer owns no property in the neighborhood. Now you are asking about a situation in which the developer owns the common areas.

As I read the quoted section you provided, as long as there are uncompleted homes without a certificate of occupancy then the declarant may retain control. Whether or not that would stand up in court is a different matter, entirely.

I would guess that somewhere in the governing documents there is a statement to the effect that the declarant may transfer rights to development and control of the homeowners association to a successor. An example might be:
    "Declarant" shall mean the developer and any successors and assigns of Declarant who it designates in one or more written recorded instruments to have the rights of Declarant hereunder, including, but not limited to, any mortgagee acquiring title to any portion of the Property pursuant to the exercise of rights under, or foreclosure of (or by acceptance of a deed in lieu of foreclosure of), a mortgage executed by Declarant; provided, however, that any such mortgagee so acquiring title by virtue of foreclosure against (or acceptance of a deed in lieu of foreclosure from) the Declarant shall not be deemed to have assumed any prior obligations or liabilities of the Declarant hereunder.
If there is such language in the covenant document, the mortgagee then assumes the rights of control over the homeowners association, and has the right to transfer such control to another builder/developer.

DanaH2 (Georgia)
Posts: 7
Posted:
Your answers are very insightful. Whether the developer owns the common areas is speculative. I don't know if the common areas went back to the bank with the forclosed lots or not. Unfortunately, we are in the dark about most issues. A lawyer is reviewing our covenants and we are waiting for his opinion letter. Since a new builder is coming in, it makes more sense to me that the developer would transfer the HOA to them instead of the 24 home owners. It would certainly benefit the new builder to have architectural control.
The developer is the declarant and HOA all rolled into one. We have no board in the neighborhood. I don't even know if that is legal or not. I guess we will soon find out. Thank you so much for you posts. You have been so helpful.

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