BobC6 (Virginia)
Posts: 77
Posts: 77
Posted:
We are a Virginia POA having already used 18 out of the 40 years allowed for developer control with 950/1400 units sold with a 90% trigger for transfer of control. On 2/2/09 the developer controlled association BOD voted to approve a draft transition planning committee with heavy restrictions favoring the developer such as, no legal advice, no contact with outside government organizations, all members of transition committee appointed by developer, only can advise the BOD, no contracting with business organizations for advice, inspections or any services without approval of the BOD, no contact with the association legal counsel, nor independent legal counsel,...
The developer said the motivation was not to transfer control but to transfer ownership of some of the commons to protect them from liens from some future developer if the existing developer defaults. However, we feel that we are better protected by not owning any commons. Right now the commons are protected from liens since they must be passed free and clear to the association so no bank would use them as collateral against the developer foreclosure since no way to compel the association to pay for the liens. But if the association owned the commons then the developer controlled board could compel the association to pay back the loans it took to complete the remaining development.
I have 4 questions:
1. Do associations usually transfer ownership at the same time as control or do they transfer control many years later - in our case maybe up to 22 years later?
2. If the association owns the commons but has no control how does it protect itself from funding the developer through repayment of collateral loans for the developer since the BOD sets dues and special assessments?
3. If the sales of commons to us is controlled by the developer from both sides of the contract it is a valid sales contract?
4. If it is valid sales contract how do we save the association from large expense later if there are deficiencies in construction and we aren't allowed to inspect despite the starting of the statutes of limitations?
5. Would we have legal recourse on the basis that the transition committee is forbidden legal advice?
Bob
The developer said the motivation was not to transfer control but to transfer ownership of some of the commons to protect them from liens from some future developer if the existing developer defaults. However, we feel that we are better protected by not owning any commons. Right now the commons are protected from liens since they must be passed free and clear to the association so no bank would use them as collateral against the developer foreclosure since no way to compel the association to pay for the liens. But if the association owned the commons then the developer controlled board could compel the association to pay back the loans it took to complete the remaining development.
I have 4 questions:
1. Do associations usually transfer ownership at the same time as control or do they transfer control many years later - in our case maybe up to 22 years later?
2. If the association owns the commons but has no control how does it protect itself from funding the developer through repayment of collateral loans for the developer since the BOD sets dues and special assessments?
3. If the sales of commons to us is controlled by the developer from both sides of the contract it is a valid sales contract?
4. If it is valid sales contract how do we save the association from large expense later if there are deficiencies in construction and we aren't allowed to inspect despite the starting of the statutes of limitations?
5. Would we have legal recourse on the basis that the transition committee is forbidden legal advice?
Bob