DwightT (Idaho)
Posts: 664
Posts: 664
Posted:
Our Bylaws include the following section:
Section 4.05 "Action Taken Without a Meeting" - The Directors have a right to take any action in the absence of a meeting which they could take at a meeting by obtaining the written approval of all the Directors. Any action so approved shall have the same effect as though taken at a meeting of the Directors.
A few weeks ago our landscaper notified us that he needed to have our order for the flowers that are planted at our entry so that he could order seeds. Typically we purchase $5000 worth of flowers through him. However, with many people being out of work and an increase in requests for delayed payment plans, I felt that it would be prudent to discuss at least cutting back on our flower order for this year (among other cost savings measures). The problem was that our landscaper wanted the order by the 15th (last week), while our next Board meeting isn't until the 21st (tomorrow).
When the landscaper's request came in, I requested (via email) that the Board either ask the landscaper to wait until we could discuss the issue at the Board meeting or that we reduce our order for this year. I stated in my message that I did not approve placing a full order at this time. I recently found out that the other two Board members have talked to the landscaper who stated that he had to place his seed order by the 15th. The other two Board members subsequently approved the full $5000 order.
Ok, I'm pissed that they did this without discussing the matter in our meeting as I requested, but was this an "Action Taken Without a Meeting"? The other thing to mention is that the annual budget that was approved and presented to the homeowners did include the full $5000 for flowers. Does that fact mean that the flower order had already been implicitly approved?
Section 4.05 "Action Taken Without a Meeting" - The Directors have a right to take any action in the absence of a meeting which they could take at a meeting by obtaining the written approval of all the Directors. Any action so approved shall have the same effect as though taken at a meeting of the Directors.
A few weeks ago our landscaper notified us that he needed to have our order for the flowers that are planted at our entry so that he could order seeds. Typically we purchase $5000 worth of flowers through him. However, with many people being out of work and an increase in requests for delayed payment plans, I felt that it would be prudent to discuss at least cutting back on our flower order for this year (among other cost savings measures). The problem was that our landscaper wanted the order by the 15th (last week), while our next Board meeting isn't until the 21st (tomorrow).
When the landscaper's request came in, I requested (via email) that the Board either ask the landscaper to wait until we could discuss the issue at the Board meeting or that we reduce our order for this year. I stated in my message that I did not approve placing a full order at this time. I recently found out that the other two Board members have talked to the landscaper who stated that he had to place his seed order by the 15th. The other two Board members subsequently approved the full $5000 order.
Ok, I'm pissed that they did this without discussing the matter in our meeting as I requested, but was this an "Action Taken Without a Meeting"? The other thing to mention is that the annual budget that was approved and presented to the homeowners did include the full $5000 for flowers. Does that fact mean that the flower order had already been implicitly approved?