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JimM7 (Florida)
Posts: 71
Posted:
For all interested...
My association held the annual meeting and because they did not achieve the quorum required by the by-laws, declared that the "law had changed and we can use 30%". The voting membership is 415 individuals. Our by -laws say 33% must vote by proxy or attendance. They had 126 total submitted proxy and meeting voters that is 1 more than 30%. They also accepted proxies past the 3 day limit stated in the by-laws.
I was'nt at the meeting but was told what happened. They conducted the meeting and had a vote of 2 board members anyway.Members do not know the rules.
I wrote the board a letter of complaint and here is their reply:
"For the past several years the Associations legal counsel, Becker and Polikoff, have outlined the requirements to the Association for holding the annual meeting. This multipage outline , by Becker and Polikoff, states that an association can fall back to the rule as outlined in the Florida statute 720.306, for the 30% quorum when the initial quorum as referenced in a Association's bylaws cannot be met." QMRPOA Board of Directors.

I'm working on it but as of right now Florida HOA's don't have much power over boards who break the law. All comments would be appreciated....Jim
DonnaS (Tennessee)
Posts: 5,671
Posted:

Jim,

As far as the Statutes say, it is 30% of the membership for a quorum UNLESS the governing documents state a lower number. Your documents state 33% and up until now with what Becker and Polikoff says, it has been whatever the governing documents state.

They are a huge firm, having hundreds of HOA lawyers and one of my associations had used them. We did hire another firm because of a few questionable opinions which differed from other legal opinions. So I would question where they based that opinion on. As I said, the State uses 30% or lower but the association just cannot change that quorum requirement without an amendment to the by-laws which addresses the number unless the State would say "(under no circumstances)".

I would need to see the exact wording of the bylaw. Also, is this what you are referring to as to what the attorney used as reference?

---720.306 Meetings of members; voting and election procedures; amendments.--

(1) QUORUM; AMENDMENTS.--

(a) Unless a lower number is provided in the bylaws, the percentage of voting interests required to constitute a quorum at a meeting of the members shall be 30 percent of the total voting interests. Unless otherwise provided in this chapter or in the articles of incorporation or bylaws, decisions that require a vote of the members must be made by the concurrence of at least a majority of the voting interests present, in person or by proxy, at a meeting at which a quorum has been attained.

GeorgerwilliamsW (Indiana)
Posts: 975
Posted:
If this quorum issue were ever adjudicated, one of the issues that would have to be proved is "harm."

Would the outcome of the meeting, e.g. votes, have been any different had a quorum been achieved?

A plaintiff would have to show manifest harm in order for a court to invalidate the results of the meeting, particularly since the number present (in person and by proxy) was so close to the actual number required in the governing documents.

I would doubt that a Florida court would see a lawsuit in such a case as anything other than a nuisance lawsuit. It would likely be dismissed with prejudice and the plantiff charged with court costs and attorney's fees. If it ever got to trial, it would be highly likely that a directed verdict would be the outcome in a juried trial, given the facts posted here.

The law does not demand precision when no harm can be shown.

DonnaS (Tennessee)
Posts: 5,671
Posted:

George,
I agree with your opinion and because of the Florida mediation requirements, it would never reach a court.. A question would be can the meeting be declared invalid, thus the vote taken by the Board also not valid?
JohnK3 (Pennsylvania)
Posts: 967
Posted:
Maybe I missed something, but we commentators don't know what transpired at the meeting nor what "harm" may have been done, if any. Seeing the ByLaws would help. Perhaps there is a default to a lower quorum if the first try doesn't succeed?
GeorgerwilliamsW (Indiana)
Posts: 975
Posted:
Again, even in mediation, most likely the plaintiff would have to demonstrate that harm had been done to invalidate the results of the meeting. A mediator would most likely operate on the presumption that the meeting was legal, and the votes valid, unless a reasonable likelihood of a different outcome could be shown. If the votes were close--one or two votes could have changed the outcome--then a case for probable harm may be successful.

It may be a "no harm, no foul" situation. Certainly, the board could be admonished for violating the governing documents, but leave it at that.

I note that the poster did not attend the meeting and did not indicate a vote by proxy. As such, he would have little standing in either mediation or adjudication to challenge the outcome. Not attending a meeting is never the best way to challenge its validity or outcome. If one wants to protest the absence of a quorum, one should attend and state that the only reason for attendance is to make such a protest. In such instances, attendance would not count toward the quorum.
DonnaS (Tennessee)
Posts: 5,671
Posted:

Thanks George for the assessment.

Also pointing out that the poster did not attend the meeting brings to light one of the main reasons that meetings end up without proper quorums, being lack of attendance (unless he sent in his proxy).
DwightT (Idaho)
Posts: 664
Posted:
Maybe I'm being obtuse today, but from what I see in the snippit of 720 that Donna posted, it looks to me like the meeting and vote where valid.

The law states Unless a lower number is provided in the bylaws, the percentage of voting interests required to constitute a quorum at a meeting of the members shall be 30 percent ... To me, that says that the law requires that the percentage can be no more than 30%. A lower percentage is allowable if stated in the bylaws, but a higher percentage (such as 33%) is not allowed. Thus I would think that the OPs Board and their legal firm were correct.

Even so I agree with George. Even if I have completely missed it, I doubt if the case would go anywhere in court.
DonnaS (Tennessee)
Posts: 5,671
Posted:

Dwight,
Statutes 720, the HOA Statutes were enacted in 2000. Prior to that, the "Not For Profit Corp Statutes used were 617 and the wording for that is this below.617 is what ALL HOAs had to follow.

"617.0725 Quorum.--An amendment to the articles of incorporation or the bylaws that changes or deletes a greater quorum or voting requirement must meet the same quorum or voting requirement and be adopted by the same vote and voting groups required to take action under the quorum and voting requirements prescribed in the provision being amended"

As you can see, there is no number or percentage required, and so many older associations had quorum requirements written as either 1/3rd or 33%, which is where the O.P. gets his number from. And that is why the 720 and 617 differ. Associations that have not gotten in sync with 720 come across this often. But the question still remains, do they just go with the 720 words or should they do it the correct way and amend their quorum thru a proper vote.
JimM7 (Florida)
Posts: 71
Posted:
Thanks guys for the comments.
I would not presume that there was "harm". My contenton , although I was unable to attend the meeting , is that that by-laws ,articles of incorporation and covenants were violated. This is an issue of governing document compliance. If the attitude to be followed is "rules do not have to be followed" then why go to the touble of writing them. And lets all stay home and don't worry about HOA Boards complying.

Here is what our by-laws say:
Section 9. Quorum. Except as otherwise provided in these Covenants, the presence in person or by proxy of at least one third (1/3) of the members having voting rights under the Covenants with respect to the matters to be adressed shall constitute a quorum at all meetings of the Association."

Let's here it for the Becker and Polikoff lovers.
DwightT (Idaho)
Posts: 664
Posted:
Ok, I'm definitely obtuse today. Just trying to read through that paragraph of 617 makes my eyes glaze over.

But it looks to me like 617 and 720 are only obliquely related. To me it looks like 617 only deals with the procedure for amending the by-laws to establish a lower quorum amount than what is currently stated. So ignoring 720 for the moment, if the by-laws currently stated that the quorum amount was, say, 50% and the HOA wanted to lower it to 33%, 617 would dictate that they would still have to hit the 50% mark for the vote to adopt the lower level. Once that vote has passed, then all future votes would only have to meet the 33% level.

But it still looks to me like 720 states that the level may not be more than 30% regardless of what the bylaws say. So for the OPs case, 720 overrules the by-laws since their by-laws exceed the permitted amount (remember our hierarchy of rules), so no amendment is really necessary and 617 doesn't apply.
DonnaS (Tennessee)
Posts: 5,671
Posted:

Dwight,

Your second paragraph is what Becker & Polikoff probably issued their opinion on. Because of rewritting specific Statutes for HOAs after 2000, they should have followed thru more and included Articles of Inc specifically adapted for HOAs but they did not.They let us use the Statutes for all Not For Profit Corps. And in the heirarchy of documents, Articles of Inc are over any Bylaws. P.S.--Not obtuse today, just sharp
PeterB1 (Florida)
Posts: 257
Posted:
We just fired B&P - they make things so convoluted that we had to pay enormous sums just to find out what time is was...

However, I think you are making the section of 720 more complex than it is. The phrase is "Unless a lower number is provided in the bylaws,...". Well as long as 33% is not less than 30%, the Florida law applies.

We take the purpose of the legislation to assist in obtaining quorums so HOA can reasonably operate.
KirkW1 (Texas)
Posts: 1,665
Posted:
Obviously I am not a lawyer. But what I have seen so far would lead me to believe that:

The original law stated that in order to lower the quorum requirement a quorum under the old requirement had to be met. Meaning that if an organization had a 50% quorum, then they would have to get 50% of the votes available present to lower the quorum to say 30%.

Then another law was written that stated that the quorum requirements shall be set at either: 30% or a lower figure as specified in the organization's bylaws.

So I would say that if 30% of the ownership was represented in person or by proxy, then the meeting was valid. Perhaps one could argue that they would have to get 33% of the membership represented to change the bylaws. But since there is an overriding law placing quorum at 30% or lower, then I don't think they need to get more then 30% of the ownership for any business including changing the quorum requirement.
JohnK3 (Pennsylvania)
Posts: 967
Posted:
I agree with Kirk and Dwight. 30% is the rule, unless a lower % is provided for in the docs.
JimM7 (Florida)
Posts: 71
Posted:
Great Posts........
Could a solution be this: "all HOA's in Florida will comply with the State mandated minimum 30% quorum level and no mention shall be necessary in controling documents except "Florida Statute will be follwed". This has got to be nailed down so there is no confusion...some of us are not lawyers....just regular folks who want to get it right.

I have no argument with a "number" if the membership accepts it. But what if a membership wanted 35% to generate and promote interest and keep control...it is disallowed. It would seem to me that a government would want to set a MINIMUM to be sure that no board could come in and accomplish things with extremely low membership participation. It seems unreasonable that an association would want LOWER than 30% membership oversight. Maybe I'm wrong.

The reason I am working this is because there will be, hopefully , a law written in Florida in 2009 that will be signed to give HOA's the same protection as Condo's now have.

Again...great posts...Jim
JohnK3 (Pennsylvania)
Posts: 967
Posted:
Jim,

BTW, most HOAs would be thankful to get a +30% turnout as you did. Our quorum is 10%. Our last annual meeting got 19%. But subtracting our BOD, we got less than 5%.
JudyZ (Florida)
Posts: 23
Posted:
I questioned our attorney on this and here is his reply. "You are correct in that Section 720.306, Florida Statutes, states that a quorum is to be 30% of voting interests. As that is the law of the State of Florida, that simply serves as a baseline for the minimum voting interests necessary to constitute a quorum. An association is always free, however, to make their quorum requirements more stringent than the minimum standards set out by Florida Statutes. In other words, your associarion and any other are free to require in your by-laws that a greater percentage than 30% (1/3 in your case) be present to constitute a quorum, however you are not able to adopt by-laws which would fall below the 30% baseline set by Florida Statutes. The association is absolutely free to change the quorum requirements from 33% to 30%, however because the quorum requirement is set out in your by-laws, it will require an amendment to those by-laws in order for the change to 30% to be proper."
SusannaM (Florida)
Posts: 366
Posted:
This thread brings to mind a recent annual meeting we had at my HOA where unfortunately the 30% "magic number" quorum was not attained. Our outdated Bylaws do not specify a number so the PM and board decided to go along with FL 720 requirement but refused to call a second election meeting. I am not on the board but wish to see our Bylaws amended to 20% quorum. 3 candidates were "appointed" to fill vacancies. I worked very hard to get 3 bad board members to resign. President decided she was wants to stay put as President, which I found kind of arbitrary but I'm not going to fight her.
CharlesN2 (Florida)
Posts: 11
Posted:
Jim, Don't quote me, but due to a situation I have had to deal with recently, I think the Law you mention is in the works and agree that HOA's should have the same rights. However, depending how a community is set up. Lived in a situation which was set up under both Condo & HOA. Go figure...Depends on the developer and their legal reps.

My personal opinion on the 30% sucks.............Majority should rule in any given situation. Only going to guess that you have residents who never read the docs and come and go and expect the "Association in the sky" will just take care of everything. My complements to you for keeping up on things.
JimM7 (Florida)
Posts: 71
Posted:
Thank you CharlesN2...

This issue is going to have to be resolved because as everyone can see there is a lot of confusion. JudyZ's lawer is probably the most correct but I bet Polikoff woud argue that. There not in the people business.

My position is that we should have a standard that each HOA could follow without confusion.

Anyway, thanks everyone for some interestiong posts...we'll see what the legislature does.

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