BruceF1 (Connecticut)
Posts: 2,535
Posts: 2,535
Posted:
Here's an interesting question concerning voting at an association homeowners meeting. I'm only asking it because a homeowner posed the question to me.
Suppose in your association you are permitted only one vote per unit. I believe that's how most of them work. So, a husband and wife as co-owners attend a meeting of the homeowners. Of course, only one of them is allowed to vote.
Suppose a motion is made and a vote is taken, either by a voice vote or by a show of hands.
How can you guarantee that the result of the vote was legal? In other words, if asked, how would you prove that there was only one vote per unit?
Suppose in your association you are permitted only one vote per unit. I believe that's how most of them work. So, a husband and wife as co-owners attend a meeting of the homeowners. Of course, only one of them is allowed to vote.
Suppose a motion is made and a vote is taken, either by a voice vote or by a show of hands.
How can you guarantee that the result of the vote was legal? In other words, if asked, how would you prove that there was only one vote per unit?