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In Texas, would it be valid to vote on something from the floor, completely unreleated to the agenda, at an annual meeting of a POA?

Started by RogerJ18 replies • 222 views

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RogerJ1 (Texas)
Posts: 550
Posted:
I always thought it was fair game that it would be valid to vote on anything that came from the floor at an annual meeting. For example, someone, recognized from the floor brings up an unrelated topic, then proposes a vote on it, someone seconds it, and then everyone votes, and if it passes that would be a valid action. I found something in the Texas Property Code Chapter 209*, that gives me pauses on that idea.

So a question please, in Texas, if a member proposed something from the floor, and it went through the proper actions of being seconded and thrown to vote, would that vote, if it passed, be valid? Or would that vote topic not being part of the agenda given in the general annual meeting notice make that vote invalid?

*Sec. 209.0056. NOTICE OF ELECTION OR ASSOCIATION VOTE. (a) For an election or vote taken at a meeting of the owners, not later than the 10th day or earlier than the 60th day before the date of the election or vote, a property owners' association shall give written notice of the election or vote to:

(1) each owner of property in the property owners' association, for purposes of an association-wide election or vote; or

(2) each owner of property in the property owners' association entitled under the dedicatory instruments to vote in a particular representative election, for purposes of a vote that involves election of representatives of the association who are vested under the dedicatory instruments of the property owners' association with the authority to elect or appoint board members of the property owners' association.
RogerJ1 (Texas)
Posts: 550
Posted:
With an answer to my question above, please cite a law or source.
CathyA3 (Ohio)
Posts: 6,299
Posted:
Very unlikely. Aside from the agenda problem, what assurance is there that the proposal is even legal or doable? In addition, except for a few specific situations with specific legal hoops to jump through, a homeowner vote would not be binding. They can voice their opinions, but the board would not be obligated to act on them.

KerryL1 (California)
Posts: 14,550
Posted:
I'm pretty certain that I've seen TX code that says the notice of assoc. meetings must contain the items of business on the agenda. So you need to explore further and start with what a "notice" must contain.

JohnC46 (South Carolina)
Posts: 14,265
Posted:
I do not know about TX but in SC the item must be on the Agenda before being motioned, discussed, and voted on. All that said, the requirements for an Amendment must still be met as in % of owners required for it to pass.
DouglasK1 (Florida)
Posts: 2,046
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By CathyA3 on 02/14/2024 12:15 PM
... except for a few specific situations with specific legal hoops to jump through, a homeowner vote would not be binding. They can voice their opinions, but the board would not be obligated to act on them.

I'm curious about this too, what would the owners be voting on that would not actually be a board decision?

Escaped former treasurer and director of a self managed association.
CathyA3 (Ohio)
Posts: 6,299
Posted:
Something like amendments to the governing documents. I think it would be better to have a separate meeting for that, but there may be good reasons to do it at the annual meeting (improve the attendance numbers or something like that). If the agenda includes both items, it should be legal.
CathyA3 (Ohio)
Posts: 6,299
Posted:
Forgot to add, the board may want to poll the membership about some issue and doing it at the annual meeting may make sense, as long as it's on the agenda. On the other hand, any motion that an owner introduces may be something that the association can't legally do or that the membership has no say over. It's the kind of thing that can lead to a meeting going off the rails, and if the motion violates TX agenda requirements it may invalidate what had been a perfectly valid election.
ElleN (Idaho)
Posts: 4,420
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By RogerJ1 on 02/14/2024 11:57 AM
I always thought it was fair game that it would be valid to vote on anything that came from the floor at an annual meeting.
No, this is incorrect. One of the main purposes of "notice" is to give owners a chance to decide whether they want to attend or not. When all topics to be voted on are not included on whatever was sent out to tell owners about the meeting, then whatever was sent out is not lawful notice.

Quote:
Posted By RogerJ1 on 02/14/2024 11:57 AM
So a question please, in Texas, if a member proposed something from the floor, and it went through the proper actions of being seconded and thrown to vote, would that vote, if it passed, be valid? Or would that vote topic not being part of the agenda given in the general annual meeting notice make that vote invalid?
The vote would not be valid.

Quote:
Posted By RogerJ1 on 02/14/2024 11:57 AM
*Sec. 209.0056. NOTICE OF ELECTION OR ASSOCIATION VOTE. (a) For an election or vote taken at a meeting of the owners, not later than the 10th day or earlier than the 60th day before the date of the election or vote, a property owners' association shall give written notice of the election or vote to:

(1) each owner of property in the property owners' association, for purposes of an association-wide election or vote; or

(2) each owner of property in the property owners' association entitled under the dedicatory instruments to vote in a particular representative election, for purposes of a vote that involves election of representatives of the association who are vested under the dedicatory instruments of the property owners' association with the authority to elect or appoint board members of the property owners' association.
FWIW, good job. I reviewed TPC 209 and agree this is the proper legal authority to cite.

In addition from BO22.156, for special meetings of the owners, the notice must provide "the purpose or purposes for which the meeting is called."

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