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PeggyH (South Carolina)
Posts: 36
Posted:
When someone has not paid their dues and therefore can not vote, their right to voting is suspended. Does the board need to give them formal notice that their voting rights are suspended. Our CC&R's and By-Laws do not specifically say, it just says their voting rights are suspended.
CharlesW1 (Georgia)
Posts: 826
Posted:
PeggyH

I can’t say, with any certainty that you should, however I would think it would be in your best interest to mail a standardize letter notifying the HO that h/she isn’t eligible to vote until they are current on their assessments.

Perhaps, quoting the covenant in which the BOD is substantiating their claim to suspend their voting rights. I would think by doing this you would also be protecting the BOD/association “IF” the suspension was never official/legally confirmed.

Just my opinion though.
Chuck W

Charles E. Wafer Jr.
PaulM (Pennsylvania)
Posts: 1,347
Posted:
PeggyH: IF your official docs state clearly that anyone in arrears CANNOT VOTE, and it does not state a letter will be sent to confirm, then the person's voting rights are suspended, period...until such time they become current on payments owed.

As far as the voting process is concerned, a list showing those persons in arrears should be reviewed at time of voting, so that if one casts a vote illegally, it is not counted with the others. An announcement prior to the votes being cast is also helpful--"those in arrears w/payments are not entitled to cast a vote..."

GloriaM (North Carolina)
Posts: 829
Posted:
Peggy:

Usually a Hearing before the board comes before the right to vote is suspended. Read your CCR's to make sure the board can suspend their right without a hearing first.
CharlesW1 (Georgia)
Posts: 826
Posted:
PeggyH,

Statement withdrawn, I concur with what PaulM/GloriaM have posted. Review your governing documents for an exact procedure to which further substantiate the forums advice.

Only your governing documents will specify the exact procedure too be taken when suspending any HO’s right to vote.

Best of luck and keep us posted
Chuck W.

Charles E. Wafer Jr.
DennisK1 (South Carolina)
Posts: 2
Posted:
This subject came up recently at our HOA meeting, and our President stated that you could not suspend voting rights for failure to pay regime fees or dues. The Federal voting rights act puts that in the same category as a "poll tax", and is now illegal. Is it legal or illegal?
DonnaS (Tennessee)
Posts: 5,671
Posted:

I believe that your President is wrong. A HOA is NOT part of the Federal voting rights Act and has nothing to do about voting within the entity called a "Home Owners Association" HOAs have their own voting allowences and rights. Dr. Gloria has given you advice with which I concur. A hearing must be held to inform a member that his rights are being suspended until he clears up his delinquency. It is clearly written in most documents and Statutes for HOA's.
BrianB (California)
Posts: 2,820
Posted:
Dennis, your president is dead wrong.

the federal voting rights act does NOT apply to businesses, and an HOA is a business. You can suspend the rights of your shareholders (owners) freely (within the confines of your shareholder's agreement, the covenants and by laws). The Federal law applies to government entities, and political elections.

Your HOA can CERTAINLY ban people from voting. for instance, can I cast a vote in Your HOA elections? Your HOA bans 300,000,000 Americans or so from voting already.

As for the other, follow the advice given here: read your rules, follow them, and suspend the right to vote. I too would send a letter, just for effect, even if my rules didn't say i had to. It just makes it official.
HaroldS (Arizona)
Posts: 906
Posted:
We wring our hands over the fact members DON"T take the troble to vote.
I would imagine the attitude of most members being denied the right to vote would be, "so what?" I seriously doubt being denied the right to vote in an election is going to inspire anyone to pay up.
But I do question wheather we can deny a vote on matters that would affect our deeds which requires a designated percentage of owners for approval.
BrianB (California)
Posts: 2,820
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By HaroldS on 03/13/2008 1:26 PM

But I do question wheather we can deny a vote on matters that would affect our deeds which requires a designated percentage of owners for approval.

In my experience, you can deny the right to vote even in those matters, AND, you can often lower the number of votes needed to pass. Many by-laws are written to require a quorum of "eligible" voters )not of all voters/owners), and for every member suspended, you need a little less votes to win. If you suspend enough people, it's possible to change your covenants with very few votes, if your rules are written in that manner.

I do agree with you harold, that this type of thing doesn't seem "fair", but it can often be done.
HaroldS (Arizona)
Posts: 906
Posted:
Perhaps so. But for someone with deep pockets and determination, I think they could tie up your HOA for years if they wanted to on this subject. Courts are looking for "reasonable" rules. I wonder if denying a person's right to vote because they owe money is reasonable. Especially if the outcome could affect their property's value. Maybe it is something the legislatures need to take up.
If you denied someone a vote on something that also requires consent of the mortgage holder, does that exclude their mortgage holder from input too?
ThomasW4 (Florida)
Posts: 1
Posted:
Your docs should state that if you are in good standing you have the right to vote. Therefor if you are not in gooding standing ie. nonpayment of dues you are not in good standing.
GlenL (Ohio)
Posts: 5,491
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By HaroldS on 03/13/2008 4:43 PM
Perhaps so. But for someone with deep pockets and determination, I think they could tie up your HOA for years if they wanted to on this subject. Courts are looking for "reasonable" rules. I wonder if denying a person's right to vote because they owe money is reasonable. Especially if the outcome could affect their property's value. Maybe it is something the legislatures need to take up.
If you denied someone a vote on something that also requires consent of the mortgage holder, does that exclude their mortgage holder from input too?

In Ohio the legislature changed the law covering condos mandating that we suspend the voting privileges:

Sec. 5311.081. (A) Unless otherwise provided in the declaration or bylaws, the unit owners association, through the board of directors, shall do both of the following:
(18) Suspend the voting privileges and use of recreational facilities of a unit owner who is delinquent in the payment of assessments for more than thirty days;

Studies show that 5 out of 4 people have problems with fractions
DonnaS (Tennessee)
Posts: 5,671
Posted:

Glen,
This is part of Floridas suspension statement.
720;305
(2) If the governing documents so provide, an association may suspend, for a reasonable period of time, the rights of a member or a member's tenants, guests, or invitees, or both, to use common areas and facilities and may levy reasonable fines, (ETC)
(a) A fine or suspension may not be imposed without notice of at least 14 days to the person sought to be fined or suspended and an opportunity for a hearing before a committee (etc).

(c) Suspension of common-area-use rights shall not impair the right of an owner or tenant of a parcel to have vehicular and pedestrian ingress to and egress from the parcel, including, but not limited to, the right to park.

(3) If the governing documents so provide, an association may suspend the voting rights of a member for the nonpayment of regular annual assessments that are delinquent in excess of 90 days.

GlennG2 (South Carolina)
Posts: 3
Posted:
ok, how about this.

The vote we are ahving requires 2 witnesses & a notary.

The document is signed and dated moday, the signer does not hand it it until thurday after they pay their dues.

Can anyone claim the vote invalid because it was signed but not delivered prior to paying dues?

Leme know~!
DonnaS (Tennessee)
Posts: 5,671
Posted:

Glenn,
If you went to court on this, it would not be a valid vote as it was not in the proper hands on time.
GlennG2 (South Carolina)
Posts: 3
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By DonnaS on 03/14/2008 6:26 PM

Glenn,
If you went to court on this, it would not be a valid vote as it was not in the proper hands on time.

The Vote is not for 3 weeks.

he just signed BRFORE he paid up his dues, but before the doc was due.
AndyD1 (Georgia)
Posts: 4
Posted:
Peggy
Just to protect yourself(because as a board member you are open to a personal lawsuit for not following the rules) and to cover yourself. I would send all people who you are not allowing to vote a cerified letter to ensure that they received the information. Do not take any chances that way eveyone is on the same page. This information was backed up by our association attorney but you do what you want.
PaulM (Pennsylvania)
Posts: 1,347
Posted:
glen: Based on your quote, "he just signed BRFORE he paid up his dues, but before the doc was due." He signed his vote prior to his dues being paid, meaning he signed when he was not paid up so he was in arrears when he signed. IMO, this vote is not valid.
HaroldS (Arizona)
Posts: 906
Posted:
Oh boy. This must be a really, really important and closely contested election item if you are going to nitpick over whether the ballot was signed before or after payment of delinquent dues. Sounds like someone is still looking to find a way of not counting that ballot.
How did he get a ballot in the first place if he was delinquent? Who allowed him to sign the ballot before he paid up? (Two witnesses and a notary for God's sake.) Can he get his delinquent payment back because his vote might still not be counted? False Pretensions!
Do let us know what is so all fired important about this vote. Two witnesses and a notary..............is that really in your documents?
GlennG2 (South Carolina)
Posts: 3
Posted:
Sickening but true. The ARB in our hood wants to be a seperate entity, report to no one, with no appeal process and self appointed, oh- and with no term limit.

It was voted down, so they are contending the vote was only passed for the by-laws, not the covenants, and now demand 51% of the HOOD to pass the covenant change. Many of our residents travel alot and are hard to pin down so we want to get their vote any time we can, for EITHER side, just as long as they vote.

The loosers of the vote are trying to make a vote impossible as you can tell.

It's ok, time will tell.../

Quote:
Posted By HaroldS on 03/16/2008 1:00 PM
Oh boy. This must be a really, really important and closely contested election item if you are going to nitpick over whether the ballot was signed before or after payment of delinquent dues. Sounds like someone is still looking to find a way of not counting that ballot.
How did he get a ballot in the first place if he was delinquent? Who allowed him to sign the ballot before he paid up? (Two witnesses and a notary for God's sake.) Can he get his delinquent payment back because his vote might still not be counted? False Pretensions!
Do let us know what is so all fired important about this vote. Two witnesses and a notary..............is that really in your documents?

MicheleD (Kentucky)
Posts: 4,491
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By GlennG2 on 03/14/2008 5:58 PM
ok, how about this.

The vote we are ahving requires 2 witnesses & a notary.

The document is signed and dated moday, the signer does not hand it it until thurday after they pay their dues.

Can anyone claim the vote invalid because it was signed but not delivered prior to paying dues?

Leme know~!

Glenn, you would need to examine your governing docs a little further.

In our HOA, the right to vote on any item up for vote is available only to those members who were ELIGIBLE (in good standing) as of the DATE of the required notice of the item to be voted on.

In our case, the date of notice must be not more than 10, and not less than 3 days prior to the date of the meeting called for the vote.

So if the person were NOT eligible on the DATE OF NOTICE of the meeting for the vote, then even if he/she paid 2 days prior, 1 day prior, or the date OF the vote, his/her vote could not be accepted.

Our documents do not require a hearing to suspend voting rights.

JonT (Texas)
Posts: 2
Posted:
I sm in a Texas HOA. We were recently informed that "State Law" prohibits a member of an HOA being suspended from the right to hold office or vote secondary to delinquent assessments. Many of our homeowners refuse to pay assessments because they are not receiving promised services. Does anyone know about Texas law regarding this. I am unsuccessful thus far in finding that particular law. I think we are a private corporation not a municipality and should be able to suspend voting rights...our covenant and bylaws state this, but we have many objectors who are years delinquent in assessments. please help.
HaroldS (Arizona)
Posts: 906
Posted:
But I'm still curious where this "two witnesses & a notary" requirement came from.
DonnaS (Tennessee)
Posts: 5,671
Posted:

Jon,
Who informed you of this new "law" and can you tell us where it is located? If indeed this has been enacted, then your State legislatures should be shot. Or better yet, let them make the delinquent payments to your association. How do they think the HOA bills will get paid?
HaroldS (Arizona)
Posts: 906
Posted:
Well Donna - how do other creditors get paid? There are legal means to collect HOA dues. I've never understood why you need this "in good standing" hammer. Anyway, as I stated before, most people being denied voting ability could care less, unless there is a pivotal issue like what is here.
DonnaS (Tennessee)
Posts: 5,671
Posted:

Harrold,
Read Jons post about a new "Texas Law" that says that they cannot collect unpaid dues. I asked him where this new LAW is and what it says.
HaroldS (Arizona)
Posts: 906
Posted:
I read Jon's post. I too would like to see the exact statute.
My question to you was because of your statement "How do they think the HOA bills will get paid?" My suggestion is - the same way all other creditors get paid. There are legal means. Why does an HOA have to have a hammer such as this not available to other creditors?
As you might ascertain, I am not in favor of messing with a person's right to vote. And as you can see, doing so can be used for someone's advantage.
DonnaS (Tennessee)
Posts: 5,671
Posted:

Harold,
It was a hypothetical question to the State Legislators who sometimes pass stupid laws. Oh my gosh, could that ever happen? DUH!!, they do it every day. Some of the associations that we read about here on the site, that have 20% or more of members not paying, that is really a problem with no answer. How does an Association meet the bills. Suspending rights to vote and use of common areas would be like taking away my rights to go over Niagra Falls in a barrel. I could care less if you forbid me to do it because I wasn't going to do it anyway.
HaroldS (Arizona)
Posts: 906
Posted:
LOL - be my guest!
So what is your point? Because an HOA can't pay their bills if some don't pay? They are entitled to withhold voting rights? What do other businesses do if their customers don't pay? Duh!
What do cities, counties and states do if you don't pay your taxes? They have legal means they can follow. But you can still vote! So what is your point?
I have no problem denying use of amenities. We were talking about voting - where did these amenitites come from?
DonnaS (Tennessee)
Posts: 5,671
Posted:

Harold,
When cities counties and States don't get revenues, they just tax everyone else higher, usually without a mutiny from the voters. In an association, the governing Documents usually have limitations as to how much dues can be increased. With the very small numbers compared to your city, county and State comparison, there is no place else to get operating revenues so there is not much room for making up the cash. To take away voting rights, is allowed per almost all documents so this is not anything that I just came up with. It must work because it is the norm. Do prisoners(felons) still have the right to vote? NOPE! because they didn't follow the rules either. Like I said, I didn't create this mess, just follow it in my association.
MicheleD (Kentucky)
Posts: 4,491
Posted:
I can't get behind your argument, Harold. The suspension isn't necessarily a means to "encourage" payment. But the vote is a privilege of membership. As long as the membership is in good standing, the member can vote. If the member decides not to pay, he/she forfeits his/her good membership standing, and therefore his/her privilege to vote, assuming the governing documents of the organization tie voting privileges to payment of assessments.

I can promise you most who don't pay don't give a rat's behind about voting, either. So my question back to you is, what's YOUR point?

I'm sure that in those organizations that allow for suspension of voting privileges for non-payment, that they also have other means available and in use to collect outstanding assessments. If they don't then shame on them.

We suspend voting privileges, because we can. We also place liens. Because we can.

But then again, we also can and do suspend voting privileges when a member is "not in good standing" due to CC&R violation. Those who are violating the CC&Rs probably don't give another rat's patootey about voting, either. But that works out in everyone's favor then, because they will not be allowed to vote until their property if brought into compliance.

I can assure you they don't comply out of a desire to vote, either. They comply because, in the end, they want to avoid a lawsuit compelling compliance.

Anyway, I don't have a problem, philosophically, with denying a non-payer voting privileges. If a member can't "buy into" the organization with their duly required assessment fees, then they should not be allowed to "buy into" the shaping of the organization with a vote at any level a vote would be required.

DonnaS (Tennessee)
Posts: 5,671
Posted:

Michelle,
Well said and Thanks for the opinion.
GlenL (Ohio)
Posts: 5,491
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By JonT on 03/16/2008 9:21 PM
I sm in a Texas HOA. We were recently informed that "State Law" prohibits a member of an HOA being suspended from the right to hold office or vote secondary to delinquent assessments. Many of our homeowners refuse to pay assessments because they are not receiving promised services. Does anyone know about Texas law regarding this. I am unsuccessful thus far in finding that particular law. I think we are a private corporation not a municipality and should be able to suspend voting rights...our covenant and bylaws state this, but we have many objectors who are years delinquent in assessments. please help.

Jon I would ask the person that claims this "law" is in effect to show you where and what it is. As far as the past due members go; file liens on them and if that doesn't make them pay up, start foreclosure procedures and see if that doesn't make them anti up. BTW in Ohio the refusal to pay over services doesn't fly, at least in condo communities:

5311.18 (6) In any foreclosure action, it is not a defense, set off, counterclaim, or crossclaim that the unit owners association has failed to provide the unit owner with any service, goods, work, or material, or failed in any other duty.

Studies show that 5 out of 4 people have problems with fractions
GlenL (Ohio)
Posts: 5,491
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By GlennG2 on 03/16/2008 2:37 PM
Sickening but true. The ARB in our hood wants to be a seperate entity, report to no one, with no appeal process and self appointed, oh- and with no term limit.

It was voted down, so they are contending the vote was only passed for the by-laws, not the covenants, and now demand 51% of the HOOD to pass the covenant change. Many of our residents travel alot and are hard to pin down so we want to get their vote any time we can, for EITHER side, just as long as they vote.

The loosers of the vote are trying to make a vote impossible as you can tell.

It's ok, time will tell.../

Posted By HaroldS on 03/16/2008 1:00 PM
Oh boy. This must be a really, really important and closely contested election item if you are going to nitpick over whether the ballot was signed before or after payment of delinquent dues. Sounds like someone is still looking to find a way of not counting that ballot.
How did he get a ballot in the first place if he was delinquent? Who allowed him to sign the ballot before he paid up? (Two witnesses and a notary for God's sake.) Can he get his delinquent payment back because his vote might still not be counted? False Pretensions!
Do let us know what is so all fired important about this vote. Two witnesses and a notary..............is that really in your documents?



Glenn, such a vote even if passed is IMO very improper and if passed will more than likely tie your Association up in court for years to come. The BOD wields the power of the Association and it can't abrogate it to a non-elected committee. Most state laws that I'm aware of prohibit a HOA from fining without a hearing. And finally even if it is passed all the documents I've read have something in them to the effect that no amendment is valid on the property UNLESS the mortgage holder agrees to abide by it so I would be on the phone with them ASAP.

Studies show that 5 out of 4 people have problems with fractions
RobertG (Arizona)
Posts: 505
Posted:
I will add a different perspective. The HOA had rules that allow for suspending voting for not paying assessments and fines. There is a process to appeal the suspension of voting rights as well as appealing the fines. This is probably similar to everyone else.

However, the difference is the reason why the board wants to suspend voting rights. They want to reduce the number of votes that are required to pass some controversial changes to the documents. If they have fewer members in good standing, the number of aye votes required goes down. In other words, they feel they can get something passed by reducing the voting pool required to get the necessary percentage.

To me, this sounds like using a rule for the wrong reason.

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