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Posted By BarbaraD13 on 12/12/2023 8:13 PM
Just attended an interesting board meeting where a board member refused to let a homeowner attend electronically (he didn't want to be recorded) who said they don't have to follow any regulations from texas code 209 because we are a certified 55+ community (even tho 209 is referred to in the CC&R and that we were exempt from all that because of HUD.
As DavidG45 said, this is false. See the hierarchy of laws that SheliaH posted. As long as no conflict exists between a given statement in one level of the hierarchy and a given statement in any lower level, then both levels apply, for the subject under consideration.
On the other hand, if this owner is saying that TPC 209.0051 (c-2) requires that he be allowed to attend by phone, then this depends on other requirements. If you do not understand, then ask a question.
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Posted By BarbaraD13 on 12/12/2023 8:13 PM
Can someone shed some light on this please. I was also told that I could not be a board member as I was a winter Texan.
Please ask the board or whoever told you this to cite the law or bylaw that requires owners to be full-time residents in the HOA to be HOA directors serving on the board.
If no such exists, then such a board-created prohibition violates the bylaws and state law.
The board cannot create restrictions that are outside its authority.
This is an advanced HOA law topic. If you do not understand, ask questions.
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Posted By BarbaraD13 on 12/12/2023 8:13 PM
And that they needed to discuss in executive session if it would be allowed to attend by phone.
TPC 209.0051 (c) prohibits the bord from doing this.
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Posted By BarbaraD13 on 12/12/2023 8:13 PM
That if I was not in attendance for 3 meetings I could be dismissed.
This is allowed only if the bylaws say this.
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Posted By BarbaraD13 on 12/12/2023 8:13 PM
That HUD supercedes texas HOA rules and if so, help me find the statute.
Maybe I will post the ad nauseam, well-established law that says that federal law trumps HOA bylaws or TPC 209 only when there is a genuine conflict between the two. Even if there is an isolated conflict (one sentence in federal law conflicts with a bylaw or texas statute section), then this does not mean that the rest of the bylaws or texas statute do not apply. On the contrary.
Example:
Bylaw says that owners who were born in France may not vote in HOA board elections.
Federal law says that HOAs are prohibited from discriminating on the basis of national origin.
The bylaw and federal law conflict. The hierarchy of laws says the federal law "controls" here. Hence the bylaw prohibiting owners born in France from voting is null and void.
Next time I suggest you start a different thread for each of your very different questions.