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ConchoP (Texas)
Posts: 208
Posted:
We are trying to interpret this section in our deed-restrictions. We need to clean up our restrictions and the developer is agreedable (up to a point I'm sure). With over 600 homes we will never get 70% of the homeowner vote. Should we interpret as written and work with developer to clean up the restrictions even through we will get some push back from homeowners as they don't attend meetings, or read minutes. Or go with this this section was not the intent the developer.

The declaration is poorly written and thus open to interpretatioaragraph 6 of the Declarations state, "Owner's Right to Amend: These Covenants and Restrictions may be amended at any time by means of a written, recorded amendment signed by the Owners of no less than seventy percent (70%) of the Tracts with one vote per Tract, except Developer shall have three (3) votes per tract. For the purposes of this paragraph, the Developer shall be considered the Owner of all Tracts where record title is held by Developer." Does this mean that the Developer has three (3) votes per tract regardless of ownership?
CathyA3 (Ohio)
Posts: 6,299
Posted:
Disclaimer: I'm not a lawyer and am not familiar with Texas laws governing HOAs.

But that said, you need to get 70% of the "membership" vote. The developer is a member (and your CC&Rs should define the different classes of membership). Right now he will have 3 votes per lot/tract *that he owns*, while homeowners have 1 vote per tract *that they own*.

Because of this, what the developer wants, the developer usually gets prior to homeowner turnover. That means if he supports the changes you want to make, now's the time to make it happen.

In your place, I'd be happier if the association's attorney gave this plan his/her blessing. That person will have to be involved anyway to make sure the proposed changes comply with state law.
TerriS6 (California)
Posts: 3,284
Posted:
In California if an amendment needs a high percentage to approve but the yes vote got at least 51%, you can file a petition in court to lower the percentage to approve if you meet all the conditions. Maybe you have something like that in Texas.
ConchoP (Texas)
Posts: 208
Posted:
CathyA# - the issue is this one sentence. " except Developer shall have three (3) votes per tract." our lawyer said that because the document is so poorly written that he can't confidently advise you as to what it states. It seems to be what is written vs intent.

While I agree with you that "if the developer supports the changes you want to make, now's the time to make it happen". While we are not looking at radical changes - we want to make the best decision. My experience with the developer is that he does know what it says, however, he may not understand that it left us with having to interpret one sentence.
ConchoP (Texas)
Posts: 208
Posted:
CathyA# - the issue is this one sentence. " except Developer shall have three (3) votes per tract." our lawyer said that because the document is so poorly written that he can't confidently advise you as to what it states. It seems to be what is written vs intent.

While I agree with you that "if the developer supports the changes you want to make, now's the time to make it happen". While we are not looking at radical changes - we want to make the best decision. My experience with the developer is that he does know what it says, however, he may not understand that it left us with having to interpret one sentence.
KerryL1 (California)
Posts: 14,550
Posted:
These... Restrictions may be amended at any time by...a written, recorded amendment signed by THE OWNERS of no less than... (70%) of the Tracts with one vote per Tract, except Developer shall have three (3) votes per tract." [My emph.]

I interpret this as Cathy does. "OWNERS" refers to tracts. Owners get one vote per tract and developer-owners get three for each tract they OWN.
JohnC46 (South Carolina)
Posts: 14,265
Posted:
Our owner appointed BOD worked closely with the Declarant and we had him make 4 changes to our docs prior to turnover. He could do this as he had the voting power to do so.
ConchoP (Texas)
Posts: 208
Posted:
Our Covents do not state how or when the developer turns over control, and I can see how it can be interpreted either way. If you have to record an amendment signed by the Owners of no less than seventy percent (70%) of the Tracts with one vote per Tract, except Developer shall have three (3) votes per tract. But then you have For the purposes of this paragraph, the Developer shall be considered the Owner of all Tracts where Developer holds record title." meaning only the tracts he owns.

Of course, because the developer is open to doing an amendment, we want it to interpret to mean that Developer can amend them due to having superior voting rights regardless of the ownership, as it is the easiest of the evils.
JohnC46 (South Carolina)
Posts: 14,265
Posted:
Concho

What do you not understand? The developer get 3 vote for each site he owns.

400 lots with 250 sold/owned thus 250 votes among them.

150 lots owned by the developer who gets 3 votes per lot thus he gets 450 votes.

70% of 400 needed to amend is 280. In this example the developer can amend as he wishes.

At 3 votes per lot the owner can control the votes requiring 70% until he owns only 94 lots.
KerryL1 (California)
Posts: 14,550
Posted:
Hope JohnC's fine explanation helps, Concho.
ElleN (Idaho)
Posts: 4,420
Posted:
ConchoP, first and foremost, I recommend the board hire another attorney. Second, please try to process the following:

-- Nationwide when a developer is still in its "development period," the declaration, always or nearly always, says the developer can amend as it desires, without an owners' vote. The amendments have to be "reasonable," or a court might throw them out. What you quoted so far does not say this. I suspect there is more in this Declaration that will resolve misunderstandings of the section you quoted above.

-- Texas statute TPC 209 has a lot to say about amendment of the Declaration. What it says may or may not be applicable. Your board should try to process the following, from TPC 209, and ask a qualified HOA attorney about TPC 209's application, if any, with regard to amending.

From TPC 209:
===
"Development period" means a period stated in a declaration during which a declarant reserves:

(A) a right to facilitate the development, construction, and marketing of the subdivision; or

(B) a right to direct the size, shape, and composition of the subdivision.

===
Sec. 209.0041. ADOPTION OR AMENDMENT OF CERTAIN DEDICATORY INSTRUMENTS.
.
.
.
(d) This section does not apply to the amendment of a declaration during a development period.
.
.
.
(h) Except as provided by Subsection (h-1) or (h-2), a declaration may be amended only by a vote of 67 percent of the total votes allocated to property owners entitled to vote on the amendment of the declaration, in addition to any governmental approval required by law.

(h-1) If the declaration contains a lower percentage than prescribed by Subsection (h), the percentage in the declaration controls.

(h-2) If the declaration is silent as to voting rights for an amendment, the declaration may be amended by a vote of owners owning 67 percent of the lots subject to the declaration.


-- Be aware that when a section of the Declaration is ambiguous or unclear, the courts will read the Declaration as a whole to see if it clarifies the meaning of the ambiguous section.

-- Your board should also see if the Articles of Incorporation perhaps clarify the situation.
ElleN (Idaho)
Posts: 4,420
Posted:
ConchoP, I am looking at a certain Texas HOA's declaration available online that uses the exact same wording as you used in your first post. The bylaws for this HOA have this clause:

"The Class B Member is Declarant and has three (3) votes for each lot owned. The Class B membership ceases and converts to Class A membership on the earlier of --

i. when each house in any section located in ____ subdivision is completed and move-in ready; or "


If all the lots platted for this HOA possess "completed and move-in ready" houses, then per bylaws and TPC 209, the development period appears to have expired.

Would you please check your Bylaws and see if they have a similar section? If so, then a competent HOA attorney will read all the governing documents and state law and advise the HOA.
JohnC46 (South Carolina)
Posts: 14,265
Posted:
Elle

I have seen docs that said when a COO (Certificate Of Occupancy) is issued the developer loses voting rights for that lot, that is unless he buys it and then he gets one vote like other owners.
ElleN (Idaho)
Posts: 4,420
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By JohnC46 on 07/04/2023 1:51 PM
I have seen docs that said when a COO (Certificate Of Occupancy) is issued the developer loses voting rights for that lot, that is unless he buys it and then he gets one vote like other owners.
If you are saying that this either sounds in the same vein of what the Bylaws I quoted above say, or helps identify what "move-in ready" might mean, then I agree.

The Bylaws at which I am looking expressly say that, in a conflict, the Declaration controls.

ConchoP, how many lots are developer owned at this point?

My bigger concern might be whether the owners here are aiming to put in place amendments that are more restrictive. Texas statutes might not allow this. Even if the statutes are silent on the point, then Texas courts might very well say (or have already said) the amendments would have to pass a "reasonableness" test.

TPC 204 and TPC 211 also should be reviewed as well.
JohnC46 (South Carolina)
Posts: 14,265
Posted:
Elle

COO and move in ready are the same basic thing though COO is generally issued by the local housing authority thus some legality to it.
BillH10 (Texas)
Posts: 1,217
Posted:
Concho

While it does not change the math very much, the Legislature changed the threshold for amending the Declaration of an association organized under TPC 209 to 67% some years ago, unless a lower percentage was already specified in the Declaration (NOT the Bylaws). I do not recall if you are in a TPC 209 association or a condominium association.

ElleN (Idaho)
Posts: 4,420
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By ConchoP on 07/04/2023 8:11 AM
"Owner's Right to Amend: These Covenants and Restrictions may be amended at any time by means of a written, recorded amendment signed by the Owners of no less than seventy percent (70%) of the Tracts with one vote per Tract, except Developer shall have three (3) votes per tract. For the purposes of this paragraph, the Developer shall be considered the Owner of all Tracts where record title is held by Developer." Does this mean that the Developer has three (3) votes per tract regardless of ownership?
I finally see the problem with the wording itself here. The problem (to me) is the phrase "Owners of no less than seventy percent (70%) of the Tracts," followed by verbiage that seems to suggest something else. I say:

Seventy percent of the Owners is 70% of the Owners of the Tracts. It does not say "70% of the votes."

I think this is a bona fide ambiguity. When bona fide ambiguities arise, the courts interpret against whoever wrote the documents. In this case the author is the Declarant.

Any intent not written down is irrelevant. This includes anything the Declarant might say today that he meant here. It's the actual words of the contract that count. Hence I interpret against the Declarant. Per the Declarant, the magic number is 70% of the owners of the Tracts, period. The tracts the declarant owns get the exact same vote as non-declarant owned tracts.

A court could go either way, though I hope it would see things as I do above (per reading a lot of case law).

Someone has to make a command decision here and roll the dice.

The only other thing I question is whether the percentage to pass the amendment is 67% (per statute, when certain conditions are met) or 70% (per the declaration).
ConchoP (Texas)
Posts: 208
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By ElleN on 07/04/2023 1:40 PM
ConchoP, I am looking at a certain Texas HOA's declaration available online that uses the exact same wording as you used in your first post. The bylaws for this HOA have this clause:

"The Class B Member is Declarant and has three (3) votes for each lot owned. The Class B membership ceases and converts to Class A membership on the earlier of --

i. when each house in any section located in ____ subdivision is completed and move-in ready; or "


If all the lots platted for this HOA possess "completed and move-in ready" houses, then per bylaws and TPC 209, the development period appears to have expired.

Would you please check your Bylaws and see if they have a similar section? If so, then a competent HOA attorney will read all the governing documents and state law and advise the HOA.



This is pretty much what our Bylaws state; however, he has been doing a phased community, which is ending with the last section almost sold. He owns lots in other sections, and the lots sold are more than those he owns.
We are set to adopt another development he is getting set to build. I think if he builds at least 145 lots, he will maintain the majority, and we could look at amending at that time.

We have our Articles of Incorporation and need to pass the bylaws; my hope is to get as much as we can in the bylaws; then, if we realize he will have a majority vote, we can approach him about amending the CCR.

He already doesn't exercise his vote, and the bank account was turned over to the HOA about five years ago. Hopefully we can get everything cleaned up in the CCRs soon.

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