Pertaining to a new-ish HOA, with no amendments to the covenants at present --
Quote:
Posted By DavidG45 on 10/21/2022 4:38 PM
Our community consists of a couple hundred single family homes, a couple hundred townhomes, and a couple hundred single family homes that are designated as a 55+ community.
We currently have a rule against fences for townhomes, while people in the 55+ and other single family homes can have fences.
There are other rules that we might want to consider that would only apply to the 55+ side and not the others, such as banning street parking and not allowing homes to be rented.
Is this something that is acceptable - having different rules for different sets of homes?
Quote:
Posted By DavidG45 on 10/21/2022 7:37 PM
The fence rule is in the covenants.
Parking is listed in the covenants as something the board can makes rules concerning.
Rentals would be a combination of rules and prospective changes to the covenants.
My take --
-- Anything in the original, un-amended covenants is something to which all agreed upon purchase. Even if an original covenant may seem unfair, all bought with eyes wide open (so say the courts, by my reading), and a court would enforce even a seemingly unfair, and even seemingly unreasonable, but original covenant . The fence covenant, which varies depending on the type of home and/or the home's location, is what it is. If an owner tried to challenge the fence covenant because it seems unfair to certain homes, a court would likely enforce the fence covenant.
-- The covenants permit the board to make rules about street parking. The only requirement is that the rules must be "reasonable." The Board should try to be "reasonable" with parking rules and then see if anyone challenges the rules. It's possible different parking rules for different sets of home is "reasonable."
-- Regarding applying different rental rules to different sections: I would have to see exactly what authority your HOA's Declaration gives the board, regarding rental restrictions, to comment on whether having different board-created rental rules for different parts of the HOA is something a court would enforce.
-- When it comes to Declaration (covenant) amendments, nationwide the courts expect the amendments to be reasonable. Why? The reason is to preclude a tyranny of the majority via say a 67+% owners' vote to amend that oppresses say some 10% of owners in a completely unfair, and so unreasonable, way. For example, suppose the covenants currently say no rentals are allowed. The required super majority of owners votes to amend this to permit AirBnBs in the 55+ section but no other section. (I remember the OP's HOA. Assume in this hypothetical that the non-legacy owners vote thusly out of spite.) Would an owner have a chance at prevailing in a lawsuit opposing the amendment? I think the owner would have a good chance of getting a court judgment that invalidates this amendment.