Quote:
Posted By GenoS on 05/03/2020 4:41 PM
That paragraph has some pretty strong language. "The Legislature finds..." "... is an unreasonable and substantial logistical and financial burden on the parcel owners and that there is a compelling state interest ..."
I agree the language is strong. I also think there was a "legal reason" to include it.
Quote:
Posted By GenoS on 05/03/2020 4:41 PM
The "compelling state interest" phrase is significant in Florida's statutes. Normally, no legislation in Florida is permitted to impair existing contract rights.
I think this section of the statute (concerning mortgagee approval) throws out and/or limits some HOAs' covenants requiring mortgagee consent. The Florida Constitution says that a person has the right to "protect property" and "no person shall be deprived of... property without due process of law." I believe the courts say that taking away property rights is the same as taking away property. Normally the Florida Constitution trumps the Florida statutes, perhaps unless there is a "compelling state interest"? If a HOA member or mortgagee went to court claiming that FS 720.306(1)(d) is unconstitutional (because it throws out and/or limits covenants; and so takes away property rights; and so takes away property without due process), would the HOA member or mortgagee prevail?
Poor upkeep of a HOA may certainly lead to large special assessments, financial ruin of owners, an owner who is upside down on her or his mortgage, and a mortgagee having on its hands a HOA member unable to pay the mortgage. On its face, for a covenant to require that mortgagees 'give consent' on amendments that radically affect the mortgagees interests seems reasonable. For a whole lot of fun, let's assume that if even one mortgagee explicitly does not consent, then the amendment fails.
Does a HOA member have standing for a viable plaintiff's claim in court when the HOA member himself or herself has no mortgage, but objects to only some mortgagees being asked for approval of the amendment (per the statute) when the Declaration or Bylaws state that all mortgagees must give approval?
I would say yes. The HOA member joined the HOA in the belief that passing amendments without the consent of mortgagees would not be possible.
Does the language in the statute about "compelling state interest" help, if a dispute lands in court? I think so. I think the judge will now say to the defendant homeowners' association: Prove to me there is a compelling state interest. Or the state will intervene in an amicus brief yada.
For condos, Florida 718 has similar language, except that the bill enacting the relevant section appears to have been passed some years earlier, around 2007. For condos, the dividing line for the two classes of mortgagees is Oct 1, 2007.
I googled a few, key short phrases from the mortgagee consent provisions of the statute, checking especially the case law at justia.com. I turned up no case law, no promising hits, and no law firm discussion of any controversy over this subject.