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LarryG3 (Florida)
Posts: 14
Posted:
We are currently re-formulating our CC&Rs to come into compliance with TX. Property Code 11 Chapter 211 and up dating our old CC&Rs.

Under sec. 211.004 it states:

"(a) A property owners' association by two-thirds vote of the association's governing body may submit a procedure for amending restrictions to a vote of the property owners in the subdivision or in the unit or parcel of the subdivision governed by the restrictions."
"(b) An amendment procedure submitted to a vote under Subsection (a) binds all property owners in the subdivision or the unit or parcel of the subdivision to which the procedure applies if more than two-thirds of the voting property owners vote in favor of the procedure."

First off our association is volumtary. Now for all other voting functions in our Association your required to be a member of the association to case a vote. However, seeing the State of TX. takes precedent over our Associations requirements, I'm reading this as every Property Owner, Association Member or not, has the right to vote. The hesitation is that though this appears to be its meaning the State is requiring a two-thirds of the the association's governing body (BOD) to submit such a procedure forward to a vote and no one can be a BOD member unless they are Association Members. Am I reading this wrong? How has this been handled in other Associations. Thx.

JoeW1 (New York)
Posts: 728
Posted:
LarryG3 - I'm not sure a vote is necessary to amend. I believe cc&r's, and bylaws are superseded by state law. Be that as it may, if a property owner is not a member of the association their vote is irrelevant. They are subject to state law and will be in compliance except for one or two cc&r's that your association requires they are not subject to because they did not volunteer to join the assoc.
RogerB (Colorado)
Posts: 5,067
Posted:
Larry, every homeowner in a common interest ownership community is counted and has the right to vote on amendments to the CC&Rs. That is because every owner is subject to the CC&Rs even though they are not members of the HOA. The CC&Rs can be enforced by any owner but usually are only enforced by the dues paying members of the voluntary HOA. Only members of the HOA are allowed to vote on HOA matters, including the By-laws.
LarryG3 (Florida)
Posts: 14
Posted:
Joe and Rodger, thank you for the replies, they are appreciated. Rodger that is what we have gone with, actually figured that but just in case. Most certainly appreciate this website and the way it has helped our association.
HaroldS1 (Arizona)
Posts: 314
Posted:
"That is because every owner is subject to the CC&Rs even though they are not members of the HOA." I'm afraid I don't understand how that can be? Are you saying the CC&Rs are also recorded on the deeds of those not voluntarily members? How was that legally done?
I have a friend who lives in a voluntary HOA and the president is constantly harassing him because of this or that, but he just tells him to xxxx off, and that's the end of it. I think he's to the point now of actually doing things he knows will annoy the guy. What's the point or purpose then? I guess I'll have to ask him if he has covenants filed against his deed. Harold
PaulM (Pennsylvania)
Posts: 1,347
Posted:
RogerB:
We are looking for you to please clarify your statements again.
You state "they are counted and have the right to vote on amendments to the CC&Rs" (the Declaration and Bylaws) because they (homeowners) are
'subject to the CC&Rs even though they are NOT MEMBERS OF THE HOA."

You further state that '..only members of the HOA are allowed to vote on HOA matters, including the Bylaws'. This sounds like a clear contradiction. Pls. explain further. Thanks.

RogerB (Colorado)
Posts: 5,067
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By PaulM on 08/27/2007 1:49 PM
RogerB:
We are looking for you to please clarify your statements again.
You state "they are counted and have the right to vote on amendments to the CC&Rs" (the Declaration and Bylaws) because they (homeowners) are
'subject to the CC&Rs even though they are NOT MEMBERS OF THE HOA."

You further state that '..only members of the HOA are allowed to vote on HOA matters, including the Bylaws'. This sounds like a clear contradiction. Pls. explain further. Thanks.

In a voluntary HOA every owner is subject to the CC&Rs even though they may elect to not members of the HOA. Therefore, every owner has the right to vote on amendments to the CC&Rs. However, only the members who pay voluntarily dues can vote on HOA matters. Contrasted to a manditory HOA where all homeowners must pay the manditory assessments against their property and are automatically members of the HOA.
RogerB (Colorado)
Posts: 5,067
Posted:
Perhaps the confusion exists because I am referring to communities which have Covenants but no manditory assessment. I am not talking about a bunch of neighbors, who have no Covenants, that join together to form a social club

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