GlenM3 (Tennessee)
Posts: 5
Posts: 5
Posted:
If someone owns a lot, but no house built on it, do they still have to pay hoa fees? Is this usually outlined in ccr?
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Do lot owner have to pay how fees?
Started by GlenM3 • 2 replies • 793 views
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TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,061
Posts: 21,061
Posted:
Typically, yes.
There may be language that reduces the fee for unimproved lots, increases the fee for unimproved lots (for example, my Association in TN adds mowing charges and they mow the vacant lot) or there may be language specifying that lots owned by the Declarant (developer/builder), or their assigns (sold lot to another builder/developer along with declarant rights), do not pay assessments.
There may be language that reduces the fee for unimproved lots, increases the fee for unimproved lots (for example, my Association in TN adds mowing charges and they mow the vacant lot) or there may be language specifying that lots owned by the Declarant (developer/builder), or their assigns (sold lot to another builder/developer along with declarant rights), do not pay assessments.
BenA2 (Texas)
Posts: 1,273
Posts: 1,273
Posted:
Every HOA is different. In ours, its the same whether the lot is empty or has a house. The CC&Rs would have to state if there is a difference.
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