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ConchoP (Texas)
Posts: 208
Posted:
Texas HOA -

Our deed restrictions were written in 2008 stating that: occupants of each Tract shall be subject to mandatory membership into the HOA. There shall be an Annual Charge of $75 per Tract starting May 2008, or when a lot is sold by Developer whichever is last. HOA By-Laws were filed in 2014. In 2008, Residents either paid HOA fees one time at closing or not at all - it seemed to be at the developer discretion.

Such as my self, we closed in 2010, we did not pay HOA fees at closing and we did not get notified of that the HOA by-laws existed, nor have we been billed. Most residents had no knowledge that the HOA by-laws were filed, while others were provided with by-laws at closing. Our HOA has been non- functioning and ran by the developer. No resident has billed annually since 2008.

We are currently pressing the developer to transfer HOA to homeowners.
Questions:

1)IF I understand correctly HOA by-laws supersede deed restrictions, so if they HOA by-laws were filed in 2014 would that not mean that HOA fees would had started in 2014, NOT IN 2008?

2) Are home owners responsible for back fees if they were never notified that an HOA was formed?

3)If a resident purchased a home in 2010, and sold the home ( I do not know what year) but the developer collected past HOA fees. Is that legal when residents did not know an HOA was formed?

I hope this makes sense.
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By ConchoP on 08/17/2016 10:13 PM

1)IF I understand correctly HOA by-laws supersede deed restrictions, so if they HOA by-laws were filed in 2014 would that not mean that HOA fees would had started in 2014, NOT IN 2008?

You understand incorrectly.

The order of precedence is:

Federal Laws
Federal Regulations
State Laws
State Regulations
County Code
City Ordinances
Deed Restrictions (Declaration of Covenants, Conditions and Restrictions)
Articles of Incorporation (if the Association is incorporated)
Bylaws
Resolutions (formal decisions made by the Board).

If there is a conflict between two documents, the higher document controls (must be complied with) unless the higher document defers control to the lower document.

Quote:
Posted By ConchoP on 08/17/2016 10:13 PM

2) Are home owners responsible for back fees if they were never notified that an HOA was formed?

Yes.

Just because you don't receive a bill doesn't mean you are absolved of the debt you agreed to pay when you purchased the property.

I expect that there is some sort of paper within your closing documents or loan documents that specify the property had restrictions. They likely didn't say what the restrictions were, just that the property had them.

Hence you were aware of restrictions when you purchased. It doesn't matter if you failed to obtain a copy of the deed restrictions when you purchased (as they were filed with the county land office). The act of purchasing was proof of agreement to comply with those restrictions.

Quote:
Posted By ConchoP on 08/17/2016 10:13 PM

3)If a resident purchased a home in 2010, and sold the home ( I do not know what year) but the developer collected past HOA fees. Is that legal when residents did not know an HOA was formed?

An HOA is formed by the filing of Deed Restrictions.

The HOA may or may not be active but it still exists. It's not uncommon for residents of developments who are still being built out to not think an Association doesn't exist as it's under control of the Developer who may simply be covering the costs to make sales easier. However, the Association does exist.

Lack of knowledge is the fault of the buyer not the fault of the seller.

As I said previously, I expect that the buyer signed something that specified they are aware that there are restrictions attached to the deed of the property they are purchasing. It's not the sellers fault the buyer never asked to review the documents prior to completing the deal (sort of like failing to read the fine print of the contract).

Now, many States are enacting laws that require a seller to provide a copy of the governing documents and gives the buyer time to review them and back out of the deal with zero penalties. I know that doesn't help you now. However, you may find comfort that given time, I expect it will be a law in all States.

I know that this isn't what you wanted to hear.

I hope it helps.

Tim

ConchoP (Texas)
Posts: 208
Posted:
Your right it is not what I want to hear.. Lol,the developer is going to have alot of mad homeowners on his hands if he expects payment for the past years. Once the new board is seated can they do something to cancel/forgive the past payments?
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By ConchoP on 08/17/2016 10:13 PM

We are currently pressing the developer to transfer HOA to homeowners.

Things you should be aware of about transitioning from Declarant to membership control:

Subject: HOA Transition from developer

Subject: Transition to Homeowner Control problems Your own thread from a year ago

Subject: HOA transition from developer control to homeowner control

Additionally, see:

Best Practices Report #7 - Transition a 55 page pdf document from the Foundation for Community Association Research

Developer/Homeowner Transition: A Guide To Success from Neighborhood link

TRANSITION PLAN a 10 page pdf document developed by an HOA (specifically for their HOA but still good info)

For the future:

Best Practices Reports links to all the reports by the Foundation for Community Association Research

TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By TimB4 on 08/17/2016 10:34 PM

It's not uncommon for residents of developments who are still being built out to not think an Association doesn't exist as it's under control of the Developer . . .

Correct this to read:

It's not uncommon for residents of developments who are still being built out to think an Association doesn't exist as it's under control of the Developer . . .
ConchoP (Texas)
Posts: 208
Posted:
I understand buyers should be responsible;however when a developer breaks his own deed restrictions does not supply information of when dues are assessed,or where to pay or provides an annual invoice. How can buyers be responsible for his failures? Sounds a bit unfair. If my business doesn't provide in invoice to a customer for payment for the month, I don't get paid and I can't go back and months or years later and asking for back payments. Thank you for the information about transitioning I will look into it.
AugustinD
Posts: 5,144
Posted:
My responses to ConchoP's questions:

1) I do not think when the Bylaws were filed is relevant here. I think whether back assessments are owed depends on other things. Furthermore, all the Declarations I have seen speak of the Bylaws and their validity. If the Declaration was properly filed, I think one could argue this was proper legal notice that the Bylaws existed or were in progress.

2) I think it depends in part on what was disclosed to you about the HOA, pursuant to Texas law.

3) Same response as 2)

ConchoP, Texas statutes do have a disclosure requirement. Here's a couple of excerpts that seem relevant to your situation.

PROPERTY CODE
TITLE 11. RESTRICTIVE COVENANTS
CHAPTER 207. DISCLOSURE OF INFORMATION BY PROPERTY OWNERS' ASSOCIATIONS
Sec. 207.003. DELIVERY OF SUBDIVISION INFORMATION TO OWNER. (a) Not later than the 10th business day after the date a written request for subdivision information is received from an owner or the owner's agent, a purchaser of property in a subdivision or the purchaser's agent, or a title insurance company or its agent acting on behalf of the owner or purchaser and the evidence of the requestor's authority to order a resale certificate under Subsection (a-1) is received and verified, the property owners' association shall deliver to the owner or the owner's agent, the purchaser or the purchaser's agent, or the title insurance company or its agent:
(1) a current copy of the restrictions applying to the subdivision;
(2) a current copy of the bylaws and rules of the property owners' association; and
(3) a resale certificate prepared not earlier than the 60th day before the date the certificate is delivered that complies with Subsection (b).
(a-1) For a request from a purchaser of property in a subdivision or the purchaser's agent, the property owners' association may require the purchaser or purchaser's agent to provide to the association, before the association begins the process of preparing or delivers the items listed in Subsection (a), reasonable evidence that the purchaser has a contractual or other right to acquire property in the subdivision.
(b) A resale certificate under Subsection (a) must contain:
(1) a statement of any right of first refusal, other than a right of first refusal that is prohibited by statute, and any other restraint contained in the restrictions or restrictive covenants that restricts the owner's right to transfer the owner's property;
(2) the frequency and amount of any regular assessments;
[snip by AugustinD for brevity]

Sec. 207.005. EFFECT OF RESALE CERTIFICATE; LIABILITY. (a) A property owners' association may not deny the validity of any statement in the resale certificate. The property owners' association's lien to secure undisclosed amounts due the property owners' association on the date the resale certificate is prepared shall automatically terminate as a lien securing the undisclosed amount. A buyer, buyer's agent, owner, owner's agent, lender, and title insurance company and its agent are not liable for any debt or claim existing on the preparation date of the resale certificate that is not disclosed in the resale certificate.
http://www.statutes.legis.state.tx.us/SOTWDocs/PR/htm/PR.207.htm

On the other hand, from the case law I have read, and consistent with what TimB4 wrote, the "mere" recording of a Declaration with the County is "proper legal notice" to a buyer of a new owner's obligations. I have heard some folks say that, if a buyer was not given a copy of the governing documents and state law requires it, then the claim the buyer (and subsequent owner) has is against the real estate agent or seller or both.

ConchoP, I think you want to go through all your closing documents and home in on anything said about the HOA, land restrictions, and so on. If you cannot turn up anything, then ask the HOA for a copy of your 2010 resale certificate. I think a competent developer or Declarant would keep copies and turn over same to any board.

TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By ConchoP on 08/17/2016 10:47 PM
Your right it is not what I want to hear.. Lol,the developer is going to have alot of mad homeowners on his hands if he expects payment for the past years. Once the new board is seated can they do something to cancel/forgive the past payments?

Technically, the Board may not waive assessments as that is a contractural agreement.
The Board may waive late fees and offer payment plans.

One thing that they could do is simply say "the records are a mess and we are starting new from this point forward" and never look at past debts. However, that would not be doing their fiduciary duty to the membership (especially those who did pay and finds out someone else didn't have to).
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By ConchoP on 08/18/2016 6:39 AM

How can buyers be responsible for his failures? Sounds a bit unfair.

So if the electric company was estimating the electric for over a year and finally got out to physically read the meter, found out they overcharged you and don't want to be responsible for your failure to know you were overpaying so won't offer a refund would be fair?

Is it fair that your assessment should be raised to cover the shortage created by me not paying my assessment?

It works both ways.

Quote:
Posted By ConchoP on 08/18/2016 6:39 AM

If my business doesn't provide in invoice to a customer for payment for the month, I don't get paid and I can't go back and months or years later and asking for back payments.

Yes you can.
And if it's within the States statute of limitations, you can even take them to court to force them to pay.

However, what would be fair would be to ask for the payment and if paid by mm/dd/yyyy there would be no late charges or, if needed, to offer to accept a payment plan for what is owed.

Your personal choice to not go after someone for a debt owed was your choice. The law would have supported you in collecting the debt had you chosen that as well. What others choose to do is up to them just as what you choose to do is up to you.
SueW6 (Michigan)
Posts: 814
Posted:
The devloper ran things the way he wanted. His sandbox, his rules (or lack of them. He didn't enforce his own bylaws)

When you get the turnover, you have a fresh slate. The new board cannot go back and get past due amounts from a corporation you no longer run.

TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By SueW6 on 08/20/2016 6:36 AM

The new board cannot go back and get past due amounts from a corporation you no longer run.

Sue,

Expecting that the Developer ran the Association under the Associations name, why wouldn't the new Board be able to go after unpaid assessments from members?
ConchoP (Texas)
Posts: 208
Posted:
According to our deed restrictions, the HOA was in effect in 2008. It states we will be subject to annual charges starting on this date or at close of a sale. It goes on to state an Annual charge will be billed on Jan 1, no one in the development ever received a bill from 2008 to date. I think he did not charge HOA fees,because he was trying to get development off the ground.Then once things started to roll he charged at closing. He has over 200 homes that either paid at closing or not at all. Never held a HOA meeting, never notified residents of filing bylaws and never sent the an annual bill as stated in the bylaws. To me he chose not to bill,so he chose not to collect HOA fees.
MelissaP1 (Alabama)
Posts: 13,836
Posted:
We never sent out "bills" to our members. Many HOA's don't because it's "understood" your in a HOA and you have to pay. Our HOA the payment box was at the mailbox cluster at the entrance of the HOA. It was pretty obvious that in our neighborhood but still got those who claimed "ignorance".

Sad to say but not all states make it mandatory for buyers to be aware they are buying into a HOA. It is viewed as the "Buyer's responsibility to be informed". So it's going to be hard to blame anyone for not knowing. The CC&R's and Articles of Incorporation are considered PUBLIC records. They are located at the County Courthouse or online. Those who have states that require the seller to provide the documents are at a bit better advantage. However, there are still those situations that one may not be aware such as foreclosures sales.

Surprised the developer hasn't been filing liens on those who have not paid. A HOA is typically funded by it's members for it's members. So not sure how your developer is funding this project and paying for common areas if he's not collecting dues. It may be time to request what records you can. Under developer control that may be limited but still should have some records to view.

Former HOA President
SueW6 (Michigan)
Posts: 814
Posted:
Conch says in his first post : 'We are currently pressing the developer to transfer HOA to homeowners."

To me, that said the HOA CORPORATION is still in the developer's hands.

The developer has not turned over the HOA to the NEW HOA corporation yet.

The new board could not go back and bill homeowners for any outstandings, since that corporation would no longer exist.
JohnC46 (South Carolina)
Posts: 14,265
Posted:
Sue

I believe in a transfer, the HOA takes over the assets and liabilities from the Declarant. I also believe the past dues can be collected assuming one wanted to.

I had a situation one time where I was selling the right to a lease/rent I had on a building. The building owner had to approve the sale. I had a auto rent increase in my lease which the owner never asked for and I never paid. Come lease transfer time, the owner wanted the back payments. My lawyer was there and he looked over the lease and told me the owner was correct. Just because he never asked for them, did not mean he was not entitled to it.
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By SueW6 on 08/20/2016 11:42 AM
Conch says in his first post : 'We are currently pressing the developer to transfer HOA to homeowners."

To me, that said the HOA CORPORATION is still in the developer's hands.

The developer has not turned over the HOA to the NEW HOA corporation yet.

Sue,

When a Declarant transfers control of the Association, it is the same as a new set of Directors being elected.
The Company doesn't change. There is no name change for the Company.
There is no new Tax number issued. There is simply a change in leadership.

The company (HOA) is the same entity regardless of who is in control.
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
Now, I should add that sometimes a Declarant doesn't physically set up an Association until the transfer (although they should) and operates the Associations under the name of their company. That isn't the right thing to do but it does happen.

In such a situation, then I would agree with Sue that technically the company changed and the debt is owed to the previous company, not the current one. However, I'm not positive how a judge might rule if such an issue made it to court.

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