TysonS (Ohio)
Posts: 1
Posts: 1
Posted:
Hello all,
Our HOA currently has an issue with an owner who is refusing to pay their HOA dues because he has a signed addendum document from the seller which states there are no association dues, fees, or assessments.
They presented a document secured at closing titled "HOMEOWNERS DUES AND ASSESSMENTS" which shows two options:
I. _____ Seller hereby represents to the purchaser that all Homeowners Association Dues and Assessments have been paid current on the property being sold.
Seller states the last month / quarter / year (circle one) dues were $_________.
II. __X__ Seller states there are no association dues, fees or assessments.
(area with parties signatures & dates)
Where it gets sticky is in the fact the PUD Rider lists the CCR stating the property does in fact belong to an HOA and is governed as such. What does the law say when there are conflicting reports like this? Can the HOA go after the current owner or the previous owner? I am aware the HOA responsibility typically transfers with the property, but in this case, the owner essentially possesses an estoppel from collecting dues and it almost seems like the responsibility therefore remains with the previous owner/seller. The previous owner/seller also did not pay their last year of dues, which further complicates matters. I feel the need to proceed with caution as litigation could pile up the legal fees quickly and this seems like a coin-flip at best. I've personally never seen a conflicting situation like this.
Is there precedence for something like this? What say ye - is it more beneficial to pursue the new owner or the previous owner?
Our HOA currently has an issue with an owner who is refusing to pay their HOA dues because he has a signed addendum document from the seller which states there are no association dues, fees, or assessments.
They presented a document secured at closing titled "HOMEOWNERS DUES AND ASSESSMENTS" which shows two options:
I. _____ Seller hereby represents to the purchaser that all Homeowners Association Dues and Assessments have been paid current on the property being sold.
Seller states the last month / quarter / year (circle one) dues were $_________.
II. __X__ Seller states there are no association dues, fees or assessments.
(area with parties signatures & dates)
Where it gets sticky is in the fact the PUD Rider lists the CCR stating the property does in fact belong to an HOA and is governed as such. What does the law say when there are conflicting reports like this? Can the HOA go after the current owner or the previous owner? I am aware the HOA responsibility typically transfers with the property, but in this case, the owner essentially possesses an estoppel from collecting dues and it almost seems like the responsibility therefore remains with the previous owner/seller. The previous owner/seller also did not pay their last year of dues, which further complicates matters. I feel the need to proceed with caution as litigation could pile up the legal fees quickly and this seems like a coin-flip at best. I've personally never seen a conflicting situation like this.
Is there precedence for something like this? What say ye - is it more beneficial to pursue the new owner or the previous owner?