MissyP (Alabama)
Posts: 63
Posts: 63
Posted:
Surprise... I am going to admit that there has been a flaw in my advice on foreclosure. Knew something was wrong but could not quite put my finger on it. Now that I have, you may see something we all kind of missed as well.
The subject of foreclosing comes up a lot on here. My advice is that the HOA NEVER EVER EVER EVER wants to own the home. It's best that if at all possible for a HOA foreclosure (NOT Bank that's another topic) the home is sold out. The HOA is best off by having the potential of a new owner moving in and stopping the bleeding. Most states except for Florida, the new owner is NOT responsible for the old debt incurred by the previous owner. The foreclosure process basically may get the legal fees and the old amount owed to it paid back. That would be the starting bid amount. Which I think we have covered the basics of foreclosures on here multiple times.
Here is where things go askew... Some posters have had "success" in buying the property and renting it out. I can't talk about the process of how they actually do this or if it's fully legal or not for your state/situation. It's something that you will have to take time to investigate and discuss.
This is where the flaw shows up. Most HOA's struggle with rental caps or placing limits on the number of allowable rental units. There are limits on how many properties in a HOA can be held as rental by loan companies. (Mostly government backed loans like FHA, Fannie, and Freddie). That effects the type of loan packages, interest rates, and refinancing offered. It goes further than your CC&R's.
The flaw then would be that IF the HOA choose to purchase the foreclosed property and use it as "rental", would it not be contributing to it's own problem of rental limits? Completely missed that aspect of the effect of choosing this option. Seems that the HOA would indeed not be respectful to it's membership by contributing an additional rental property into their mix. This would indeed have to be reported on the PUD form submitted to the loan companies.
What do you think? Is this a significant "flaw" to the theory or practice of the HOA owning foreclosed property and renting it out? Would it be a benefit still to rent out or is this kind of speaking out of two heads? Just curious...
The subject of foreclosing comes up a lot on here. My advice is that the HOA NEVER EVER EVER EVER wants to own the home. It's best that if at all possible for a HOA foreclosure (NOT Bank that's another topic) the home is sold out. The HOA is best off by having the potential of a new owner moving in and stopping the bleeding. Most states except for Florida, the new owner is NOT responsible for the old debt incurred by the previous owner. The foreclosure process basically may get the legal fees and the old amount owed to it paid back. That would be the starting bid amount. Which I think we have covered the basics of foreclosures on here multiple times.
Here is where things go askew... Some posters have had "success" in buying the property and renting it out. I can't talk about the process of how they actually do this or if it's fully legal or not for your state/situation. It's something that you will have to take time to investigate and discuss.
This is where the flaw shows up. Most HOA's struggle with rental caps or placing limits on the number of allowable rental units. There are limits on how many properties in a HOA can be held as rental by loan companies. (Mostly government backed loans like FHA, Fannie, and Freddie). That effects the type of loan packages, interest rates, and refinancing offered. It goes further than your CC&R's.
The flaw then would be that IF the HOA choose to purchase the foreclosed property and use it as "rental", would it not be contributing to it's own problem of rental limits? Completely missed that aspect of the effect of choosing this option. Seems that the HOA would indeed not be respectful to it's membership by contributing an additional rental property into their mix. This would indeed have to be reported on the PUD form submitted to the loan companies.
What do you think? Is this a significant "flaw" to the theory or practice of the HOA owning foreclosed property and renting it out? Would it be a benefit still to rent out or is this kind of speaking out of two heads? Just curious...