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JoK2 (California)
Posts: 198
Posted:
Under General Provisions of our CCR, is this section, can someone explain in layman's terms what it means? It's a separate section and is not related to any other, and am wondering if it means that no one in the HOA can receive damages if the CCR's are breached.

Remedies
"Damages may not be deemed adequate compensation for any breach or violation of any provision hereof, so that any person or entity entitled to enforce any provision hereof shall be entitled to relief by way of injunction as well as any ohter avaialable relief at law or in equity."

Thanks,
JFK
Board President
MelissaP1 (Alabama)
Posts: 13,836
Posted:
We are NOT lawyers here nor do we represent ourselves as such. We can give our opinion on the translation based on our experience and laymen's knowledge. With that said....

I believe this statement is referencing that if damage happens then the HOA retains the right to sue or proceed with court options such as liens. An injunction typically means one can bring a lawsuit. However, that's not the best option for a HOA to bring one. The other section allows the HOA to lien the other court option due to damages and other costs. Foreclosures are ONLY for non-payment of dues not for fines/damages.

Basically, if someone causes damage by violating a CCR then the HOA has the right to go to court to get that money back. A quick example: The homeowner paints their home a wrong color. It is NOT approved. The HOA can have the house repainted at their cost and send the owner the bill. If the owner does not pay that bill, the HOA can pursue that in court by lawsuit or to lien them for it. It would be considered "Damages due to violation of CCR's".

It's best to lien in the long run on such situations. A lien includes the legal costs involved for filing the lien. The owner can't sale and move until they pay the lien. A lawsuit gets the HOA a judgement but the owner can sale and move without paying the debt for years. It's not guaranteed money in the hand.


Former HOA President
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
Jo,

From a laypersons view, I read what you cited as a cover your behind statement. Damages are typically recovered by financial compensation. An argument could be made that fines for a violation were compensation for any damage caused by the violation and the issue is resolved. However, that simply doesn't always work.

Example: I build a shed without permission. The Association fines me $100 for having the shed. I pay the money and then claim that the association has been compensated for any damage caused by the shed, therefore, I should be able to keep the shed. However, in reality, the Association wants the shed removed.

Using the above example, that section simply states that in addition to any fines, the Association has the authority to also seek a court order or mediation to force the removal of the shed.

Again, from a laypersons point of view, If I were to use normal words in place of the legalize the passage may read:

Fines [Damages] may not be deemed enough to resolve the issue [adequate compensation] for any violation of the governing documents or rules and regulations [breach or violation of any provision hereof], so that any member [person] or the Association [entity] authorized [entitled] to enforce the governing documents or rules and regulations [any provision hereof] may also seek a court order to correct the violation [shall be entitled to relief by way of injunction] as well as any ohter avaialable relief at law or in equity.

Again, I am not an attorney and I do not work in the legal profession. This is simply my take on what you provided. If you want to be 100% sure of what it says, seek a legal opinion from your Association attorney.

Hope it helps,

Tim
BrianB (California)
Posts: 2,820
Posted:
In general, tort actions can only be brought if damages can be shown (ie, if you weren't harmed/damaged in some way by an action, what are you sueing for?). This clause expands on that and says that just because a monetary amount for the "damage" done is paid, it does not necessarily close out the options of the HOA OR individual owners to sue, and seek other forms of relief.

For instance, you paint your home bright orange with green stripes. I hate it, I sue you, but what are my damages? How has it physically harmed me? It hasn't. Emotionally harmed? Good luck with that route. Perhaps, through some method, I find a way to convince a judge that your orange paint has caused irreparable harm to my home to the tune of $150.

So, you write me a check for $150. If damage equality is the only means under the law I can sue, then we are done. And, your house is still orange. What this clause means is that we/I/they can sue, and ask the judge to require you repaint the house in addition to any other monetary findings (relief by injunction or order). it also means that even if you write the check, if we find another legal method to make you change (class action suit, personal civil suit, etc.) we can pursue it.

Mostly, it's just what the first two people said: It's a clause that allows the HOA and individuals to pursue as many legal actions as allowable to fix a problem, and not bind/tie their hands to a single course of action.
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
Oh, here is a thread about how to read a statute/law. Legalize is legalize regardless of what document it is in. Therefore, the information may be helpful in understanding how to read your governing documents.

Here is the link:

Subject: How to read a statute (law)

Additionally, just doing an internet search on "how to read a statute" gives a wealth of information.

JoK2 (California)
Posts: 198
Posted:
Thanks for the input, it has been very helpful and appreciate the link to how to read such things! Our mgmt. is looking into it as well, but as I trusted what our former mgmt. said, I now have to look into it as well. Lest I be told that I "have fallen asleep at the wheel".

Thanks again!
JFK
LarryB13 (Arizona)
Posts: 4,099
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By JoK2 on 11/20/2013 4:17 AM

Remedies
"Damages may not be deemed adequate compensation for any breach or violation of any provision hereof, so that any person or entity entitled to enforce any provision hereof shall be entitled to relief by way of injunction as well as any [other available] relief at law or in equity."

This whole statement is nonsense. Damages and injunctions are awarded by courts under their rules and existing laws. The HOA has no power to authorize, limit, or amend what the courts may do. If one really stretches the wording it could be interpreted as to mean that members may seek enforcement of the covenants through civil action. That, of course, begs the question, "Why didn't they just say what they meant?"

BTW, one can seek injunctive relief without actually suffering any monetary damages. At a minimum, the plaintiff would have to prove that the defendant has done, or is going to do, something that violates either a law or the terms of a contract.

TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
Larry,

I agree that it sounds a little silly to include such a statement. However, there may be, or may have been, something within MD statutes or legal precedence that prompted the inclusion of such a statement (at least at the time they were written).

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