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FrankS10 (Kansas)
Posts: 276
Posted:
Article 9 of our By-Laws states:

Section 1. Members' Easements of Enjoyment. Each Member has a right and easement of enjoyment to the Common Areas, and such easement is appurtenant to and runs with the land of every lot.

We were told by one of the developers when we were looking to buy land in our development that each lot had access to the 5 miles of trail system. The marketing brochures at that time also stated 'Every' lot had access to the trail system. The most recent marketing states "most" lots have access, and this changed after the fence was challenged.

A neighbor recently installed a fence that blocks several homes from accessing the trails unless they use a public road to do so. The DRC committee approved the fence, and the Board also upheld their decision. (Note: The fence was installed by a Board member who is also on the DRC. They recused themselves from the vote; however, our Board of 5 is made up of 3 members who sit on the DRC so it was no surprise that the Board supported the DRC's decision.)

The 4 or so homes that have had their access blocked is due to a creek that separates our lots from the trails. These neighbors who used to want to access the trails would just walk along the edge of their neighbors' lots until they reached the bridge on the Common Areas. No one had a problem with this until the neighbors built the fence. They previously lived in another home in the community but bought this one because it was a foreclosure. They do not like their neighbor which may have something to do with blocking access.

My question is simply what does 'appurtenant' mean in this structure? 3 lawyers have told us it definitely means that every lot has the right of an easement on their neighbor's property if needed to access the Common Areas. Do you agree? The two developers, who sit on our Board say they can not grant access to private property.

Thanks.
BrianB (California)
Posts: 2,820
Posted:
I think the lawyer's advice is plain wrong, and I'll use an analogy.

Many, many beaches in the US are public access. I have every right to be on them, walk along them, and access them.

That right, however, does not give me the right to trespass on private property to get to the beaches. If there is legal access to the beach from point to point, I need to use that. I can't just make my own access wherever I feel like, and cross private property to do so.

(and if you don't like the beach analogy, use a city/state/national park instead).

So, I think if you as an owner have a way to access the trails, then you have access and use rights. If they blocked you from all access, you would have a case. But having to walk/drive down a street to an access point is not, in my book, illegal.

I have access to the common areas of my association, but I can't walk across twelve neighbor's property to get there. I have to take the road.
JohnB26 (South Carolina)
Posts: 1,569
Posted:
ditto
FrankS10 (Kansas)
Posts: 276
Posted:
Brian, John;

Thanks for the replies. I guess what you say makes sense; however, what the lawyers said was the wording is granting an easement, similar to a utility easement. The utility company can access your property on this easement without permission, and so the same would apply to access the common areas. I, obviously, am not a legal person and that is why I ask.

Thanks, and if enough of the opinions are of the same as yours I think the neighbors would all just accept it as fact and try and find another approach.
LarryB13 (Arizona)
Posts: 4,099
Posted:
Frank,

An easement means that the property owner has granted others the right to use his property for certain purposes. Once granted, an easement is very difficult to remove as it requires the approval of each and every person who may use the easement. An easement becomes binding on subsequent owners.

The question in this case is whether the land that was fenced was subject to the easements or whether people were just walking across it as it provided easy access.

Easements are usually set forth in a plat, although they can be recorded in other instruments such as a deed. I hope the common area easements are set forth with some specificity as to where the common areas and other easements are located.

The bylaws of a non-profit corporation are not generally where one would find an easement granted. Bylaws govern how the corporation operates. Any rights the owners have to use of common areas should be set forth in the deeds to those lands, the plats, or some recorded document such as the declaration.

I never accept the word of a developer for anything. My experience with them has been that they know nothing of the law because they feel that none of it applies to them. Marketing brochures and salesmen's statements do not create an easement. The statement that "'Every' lot had access to the trail system" does not necessarily mean that the trails abut each and every lot; rather, it means that each lot purchaser may use the trail system.

Is your association still under developer control?

JohnC46 (South Carolina)
Posts: 14,265
Posted:
FRANK

Larry hit the nail on the head. Was an easement ever granted?

FrankS10 (Kansas)
Posts: 276
Posted:
Thanks gentlemen!

I cannot find an "official" easement in any other document. The developers appear to be confident that they would win if challenged in court, at least IMO.

No, we are not under official declarant control; however, their voting privileges for unsold lots (10 each) is still enough for them to control all vote outcomes.

Yes, some of us have learned the hard way not to trust what they say at this point. In fact, whatever they say, at least a few of us now assume the opposite is true until proven otherwise.

Thanks again!
BruceF1 (Connecticut)
Posts: 2,535
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By FrankS10 on 10/16/2013 2:41 PM
Thanks gentlemen!

I cannot find an "official" easement in any other document. The developers appear to be confident that they would win if challenged in court, at least IMO.

No, we are not under official declarant control; however, their voting privileges for unsold lots (10 each) is still enough for them to control all vote outcomes.

Yes, some of us have learned the hard way not to trust what they say at this point. In fact, whatever they say, at least a few of us now assume the opposite is true until proven otherwise.

Thanks again!

Easements are recorded wherever deeds are recorded in your municipality/county/state. They are part of the deed. Go there to see what easements apply. It doesn't matter what your developer thinks or says. Check the deed with the proper government recorded land records to see what easement, if any, applies to any individual deeded properties.
SteveM9 (Massachusetts)
Posts: 3,699
Posted:
Quote:
I cannot find an "official" easement in any other document. The developers appear to be confident that they would win if challenged in court, at least IMO.


No easement? No right to cross private property without permission. Even without the fence, the homeowner could have you charged with trespassing.

Quote:

No, we are not under official declarant control; however, their voting privileges for unsold lots (10 each) is still enough for them to control all vote outcomes.


Voting doesn't matter at this point. If these are individual lots, that have already been sold, you can't grant yourself an easement to a lot you don't own simply by voting. The easement needed to be recorded when the developer still owned the lot, before he sold it.

Homeowners still have access to the trails, they just can't walk to them over other people's property.
FrankS10 (Kansas)
Posts: 276
Posted:
Steve,

I agree with you except about trespassing. Property must be properly posted in KS before charges will be filed.

FYI for all, I am a big fan of private property rights. I was just under the impression from what I was told and read that an easement existed-not only for me to use but for neighbors to cut through my property as well.
BruceF1 (Connecticut)
Posts: 2,535
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By FrankS10 on 10/17/2013 9:21 AM
Steve,

I agree with you except about trespassing. Property must be properly posted in KS before charges will be filed.

FYI for all, I am a big fan of private property rights. I was just under the impression from what I was told and read that an easement existed-not only for me to use but for neighbors to cut through my property as well.

Do you own the land that surrounds your home? Or, is it a limited common element?

As I posted earlier, you need to go to where the land records are recorded. You can view your own deed and the deed to the property you are interested in. It's usually free, unless you want copies made. The deed should tell you exactly what you (or someone else) owns and what easements actually exist. Don't guess or assume. Go look. They're public records.
BruceF1 (Connecticut)
Posts: 2,535
Posted:
Frank,

I'll give you an example.

Our community is contained on a parcel of land known as Parcel B on the land records. We are land-locked and the only access we have to a public roadway is to cross over a portion of Parcel A. We have an easement that allows us to pass over Parcel A. That easement is shown on the land records for our community and begins with:

"TOGETHER WITH THE RIGHT TO PASS AND RE-PASS over a portion of Parcel A as shown on said map or plan and designated "Access Easement to Be Granted to Parcel B Over This Part of Parcel A," together with the right to . . . ."

Look for something similar in the land records for the properties you are interested in.
FrankS10 (Kansas)
Posts: 276
Posted:
Thank you Bruce!
KevinK7 (Florida)
Posts: 1,343
Posted:
My understanding of what is written is that the easement is not on your neighbor's property but on the common property. The easement permits each homeowner to enjoy the common property and such easement is tied to each property meaning Joe Blow in the adjoining neighborhood does not have the right to access your HOA's trails. I took it to not say that it grants you the right to traverse your neighbor's property to get to the common area.
SteveM9 (Massachusetts)
Posts: 3,699
Posted:
Quote:
I agree with you except about trespassing. Property must be properly posted in KS before charges will be filed.


I googled Kansas law. Your belief is incorrect.
SteveM9 (Massachusetts)
Posts: 3,699
Posted:
Quote:
Section 1. Members' Easements of Enjoyment. Each Member has a right and easement of enjoyment to the Common Areas, and such easement is appurtenant to and runs with the land of every lot.


To me this reads...... each member of the HOA, land owners, has the right to access and use the common areas. It never mentions where the common area is accessed from. If the only access is that public road, that is your access. You are legally allowed to enjoy those trails of the common area, but the public is not.

Quote:
Posted By KevinK7 on 10/17/2013 9:38 PM
My understanding of what is written is that the easement is not on your neighbor's property but on the common property. The easement permits each homeowner to enjoy the common property and such easement is tied to each property meaning Joe Blow in the adjoining neighborhood does not have the right to access your HOA's trails. I took it to not say that it grants you the right to traverse your neighbor's property to get to the common area.

Correct. It says nothing about traveling over your neighbor's property to access this common area.
SteveM9 (Massachusetts)
Posts: 3,699
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By FrankS10 on 10/16/2013 6:28 AM
Article 9 of our By-Laws states:


PS. Easements are granted by land records. Deeds, etc. And typically are agreed to by both the person granting the easement and the person receiving the easement.

Your bylaws mean nothing as far as "real" easements go. A board member could pass a bylaw saying anyone can cross Mr. Johnson's lawn to access the trails. It means nothing because Mr Johnson didn't agree to it.
DaveD3 (Michigan)
Posts: 796
Posted:
I agree with the general consensus. Everyone has the right to access the common area through a public access point.

Think of a community with a lake. Those on the lake have direct access. Those across the street go to the association boat launch, not across someone else's yard.

In a case without a public access point, I wouldn't be surprised to see a platted easement across another lot or two. Like maybe a 10' wide easement for walking to the common area shown along the border of two adjacent lots.
FrankS10 (Kansas)
Posts: 276
Posted:
Steve,

My view is straight from the controlling legal authority's mouth, here in KS. I appreciate your participation, but I will defer to the person who will actually make the decision.

I also agree with the general consensus, but as pointed out by one of the lawyers, our HOA has no authority to grant access via a public road. Again though, I agree that I/we made a mistake taking the developers' word for having access. Our fault, and I accept that. Sadly, the world we live in today I guess...

Thanks again everyone for your input!
DaveD3 (Michigan)
Posts: 796
Posted:
What do you mean they have no authority to grant access via a public road?
That makes no sense as it's written. If the common property is adjacent to the public road, and if the public (which includes HOA residents) can use the public road, then there is access to the common area without a need for the board to grant anything.
LarryB13 (Arizona)
Posts: 4,099
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By DaveD3 on 10/18/2013 11:27 AM
What do you mean they have no authority to grant access via a public road?

I think what the attorney meant was that the HOA cannot grant an easement on or across a public road. If the common area abuts the road then there is access from the road. If there is private property between the public road and the common area, then there would need to be some form of access, such as an easement.

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