PenneyM (Washington)
Posts: 41
Posts: 41
Posted:
Our association has an extremely high delinquency rate. We've tried working with people with virtually no success. We've lowered dues after the economy tanked and delinquencies actually went up. We've offered payment plans for outstanding balances and people still just snub the association. Liens are in place (for years now) on these properties. Those not paying are actively encouraging others that do pay to stop paying, and some people that consistently paid for years have also stopped. We even have investors with multiple properties occupied by renters refusing to pay.
I can see no other option except foreclosures.
Our attorney is slow to respond so I need some advice here. There are properties with no outstanding mortgage or other senior liens, and I don't foresee a problem with foreclosing on these.
My concern is the properties that still have outstanding mortgages where the balance owed is much greater than the value of the property. At a public auction after foreclosure, what buyer would want to bid on such a property? From what I understand, the mortgage is still there isn't it? Thus leaving us, the association, as the only bidder.
If we foreclose on one of these homes and then end up being the only bidder, from what I understand, we then own the property and are then on the hook for the remainder of the mortgage. Is this correct or am I missing something?
I can see no other option except foreclosures.
Our attorney is slow to respond so I need some advice here. There are properties with no outstanding mortgage or other senior liens, and I don't foresee a problem with foreclosing on these.
My concern is the properties that still have outstanding mortgages where the balance owed is much greater than the value of the property. At a public auction after foreclosure, what buyer would want to bid on such a property? From what I understand, the mortgage is still there isn't it? Thus leaving us, the association, as the only bidder.
If we foreclose on one of these homes and then end up being the only bidder, from what I understand, we then own the property and are then on the hook for the remainder of the mortgage. Is this correct or am I missing something?