JE (Washington)
Posts: 2
Posts: 2
Posted:
My colleague lives in WA state and in February 2013 purchased (through a realtor) an REO-home that had been foreclosed by the bank in 2012. Fast-forward several months and he is now getting ready to sell the home. The HOA has now filed a lien against him for past-due assessments (3-plus years' worth) owed by the owner who was foreclosed on.
It was my understanding that a bank foreclosure erases any previous liens (including HOA assessments). The CCRs say "assessments become a lien on the lot to which each membership is appurtenant, superior to all other liens, except liens of record prior to date of assessment, for general taxes and liens of any first mortgage or deed of trust."
The HOA insists that the 2012 bank foreclosure had no effect on the HOA's lien "if the lender did not give formal notice to the Association, which it seems it did not." (My colleague says there's nothing in the CCRs referencing "formal notice" from the bank.)
It's also my understanding that the new owner is not liable for the dues of the previous owner, and is only responsible for dues commencing from the time of possession.
My colleague's title report did not mention the existence of an HOA. HOA contends it should have been contacted by escrow to inquire about past dues.
My question: Is the new owner in any way liable for past owner's dues? If not, how shall he contest the lien? He doesn't want it to hold up the sale. He has filed a claim with title company but is not sure they will respond in timely fashion.
It was my understanding that a bank foreclosure erases any previous liens (including HOA assessments). The CCRs say "assessments become a lien on the lot to which each membership is appurtenant, superior to all other liens, except liens of record prior to date of assessment, for general taxes and liens of any first mortgage or deed of trust."
The HOA insists that the 2012 bank foreclosure had no effect on the HOA's lien "if the lender did not give formal notice to the Association, which it seems it did not." (My colleague says there's nothing in the CCRs referencing "formal notice" from the bank.)
It's also my understanding that the new owner is not liable for the dues of the previous owner, and is only responsible for dues commencing from the time of possession.
My colleague's title report did not mention the existence of an HOA. HOA contends it should have been contacted by escrow to inquire about past dues.
My question: Is the new owner in any way liable for past owner's dues? If not, how shall he contest the lien? He doesn't want it to hold up the sale. He has filed a claim with title company but is not sure they will respond in timely fashion.