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JeanI (Louisiana)
Posts: 112
Posted:
Suppose an owner moved out of the home, decided not to pay dues and moved out of state. Months later, relatives moved into the house, never registered as occupants and has not paid any dues. We have a lien on the property but do we have any other recourse? JI
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,062
Posted:
I'd check with the State property office to see where they are sending their tax bills to. This way you can be sure you have the current address of the owner.

You can talk to the relatives and see what they know.

At some point in time, if payments don't resume, the Association is going to have to foreclose in order to stop the bleeding. Hopefully, your Association has a policy in place to say how long that will be. I'm always willing to work with the owner/member if they are responding to our letters and making some sort of good faith payments. However, if they don't ever respond to the communication and have made no payments, my Association looks at the foreclosing option within 8 months.

MelissaP1 (Alabama)
Posts: 13,836
Posted:
Tim offers good advice. I just wanted to add to that to send your correspondence to the house HOA address. This way the tenants will realize there is a HOA and maybe forward the mail to the owner. Make sure it is certified when it is legal correspondence. All issues should go to the HOA address as it is the address on record. Your local tax assessors office should have the tax record of ownership if you have the lot number of the property.

We had a six month behind on dues we would lien. After a year consider a foreclosure based on circumstances. Never foreclose on a house in bank forclosure.

Former HOA President
SteveM9 (Massachusetts)
Posts: 3,699
Posted:
If all the letter writing does not work, I'd simply knock on the door of the tenant and tell them what is going on. Let them know there is an HOA, there are back dues, and the HOA will probably foreclose in the next 60 days. After foreclosure the HOA will need to evict whoever is living there. But all of this can be stopped by paying the back dues and current dues. See what they have to say. They might not even know about any of this.

If they have no intentions of paying. Foreclose, evict.
MatthewW4 (Arizona)
Posts: 500
Posted:
Steve,

I think you are on the right track.

The occupant may not have a contract with the HOA but he is the ultimate beneficiary of the services provided by the association. Any adult knows or should reasonably know that those services must be paid for. An association with a freeloading occupant such as this would not be out of line to seek payment from the occupant and let him duke it out with whoever owns the unit. Knocking on the door and seeking payment is a good first step.

JohnC46 (South Carolina)
Posts: 14,265
Posted:
Jean

Generally there is no legal way to collect dues from a renter/occupant. The back dues issue is between the owner and the association.

Letting the occupant know you are considering foreclosing and they will be evicted is quite all right. Let them know this can be stopped by someone paying the dues be it them or the owner. Put a a scare into them. See what happens.

Hope this helps.
JohnC46 (South Carolina)
Posts: 14,265
Posted:
Jean

If there are amenities like pools, etc., the association can put a stop to them (even for renters) when back dues are owed.

Hope this helps.
SteveM9 (Massachusetts)
Posts: 3,699
Posted:
Quote:
Letting the occupant know you are considering foreclosing and they will be evicted is quite all right. Let them know this can be stopped by someone paying the dues be it them or the owner. Put a a scare into them. See what happens.


Yep. If they think they will be out on the street in 60 days, they may magically come up with the money. The HOA doesn't care who pays the money, as long as its paid.
MatthewW4 (Arizona)
Posts: 500
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By JohnC46 on 04/29/2013 7:26 AM

Generally there is no legal way to collect dues from a renter/occupant.

Not so sure. There is a big difference between "there is no legal way" and "I do not know of a legal way because I never looked into it."

Suppose the tenant tapped into the cable TV system and obtained service without paying for it. Would the cable company go after only the property owner, only the tenant, or both? My first guess would be whoever is receiving the service without paying for it is going to be the first one they go after and that would be the tenant. Do you think the cable company would be swayed by the argument that they can't make him pay because he has no contract?

In the matter under discussion in this thread, the association is providing services. Both the tenant and the property owner are receiving the benefit of those services without paying for them. I am unaware of any statutes that prohibit the provider, the association in this case, from seeking payment from either or both parties.

This is such a common situation that there should be no problem finding that statute or the case law that says a tenant is immune from suit under these circumstances. Or the statutes and/or case law that says only the property owner may be held accountable. So amuse me and flood this page with citations to statutes and case law that support the argument that a tenant cannot be held liable for payment.

SteveM9 (Massachusetts)
Posts: 3,699
Posted:
Quote:
So amuse me and flood this page with citations to statutes and case law that support the argument that a tenant cannot be held liable for payment.


Case law is state specific, and HOA specific. Flooding this page with case law will be a waste of time.
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,062
Posted:
Matthew,

Your example is two different issues. One, the cable, would be a theft of service.
The other, amenities, would be in alignment with the contract (CC&Rs) which typically specify that a members guests and tenants are allowed to use the amenities.

" So amuse me and flood this page with citations to statutes and case law that support the argument that a tenant cannot be held liable for payment. "

John said that generally there is no legal way to collect from a tenant.

The only State I am aware of with a statute that allows the Association to collect the rent from a tenant in order to pay assessments is FL. FL also transfers the owners Assessment debt to the new owner. However, the OP is from LA. Therefore, the FL statute would not apply.

You stated that you are unaware of any statutes that prohibit the provider, the association in this case, from seeking payment from either or both parties. John said that generally there is no legal way to collect. Since you were unable to locate any thing prohibiting, I expect that you also didn't find anything that allowed it (I know that I didn't). My understanding is that typically, when contracts are involved, the courts want to see some part of the contract or statute that authorizes an action to be taken. Otherwise they tend to consider the omission of the authority in the contract to be an intent to exclude that authority.

Although the case speaks of the authority to fine, the opinion paper for Sarnir R. Farran, et al. v. Olde Belhaven Towne Owners Association stated this very plainly [emphasis added]:

Property owners associations and their members must abide by the corporation's governing documents. Virginia High Sch. League v. J. J. Kelly High Sch., 254 Va. 528, 531, 493 S.E.2d 362, 364 (1997). The governing documents constitute a contract collectively entered into by all the owners in the association. White v. Boundary Ass'n, Inc., 271 Va. 50, 55, 624 S.E.2d 5, 8 (2006). As such, effect
must be given to the intention of the parties. Foti v. Cook, 220 Va. 800,805,263
S.E.2d 430, 433 (1980). Importantly, under the principle of expressio unius est
exclusio alterius, the omission of a particular covenant or term from a contract reduced to writing shows an intent to exclude it. First Nat'l Bank v. Roy N. Ford Co., 219 Va. 942, 946, 252 S.E.2d 354, 357 (1979).

Perhaps you can find statutes or case law in LA that supports your opinion.

Tim
MatthewW4 (Arizona)
Posts: 500
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By SteveM9 on 04/29/2013 9:00 AM

Case law is state specific, and HOA specific. Flooding this page with case law will be a waste of time.

Whether case law is specific to a state normally depends upon the issue. If it is the interpretation of a state statute then it will be state-specific. Otherwise, courts often rely on the decisions from other states to guide them. It will also depend on the issue as to whether the it is specific to an HOA or relies on a broader spectrum of law.

I interpret your "waste of time" response to mean you have nothing to support your beliefs.
SteveM9 (Massachusetts)
Posts: 3,699
Posted:
Ahhh...... the world of hypotheticals. This discussion could go on forever.
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,062
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By MatthewW4 on 04/29/2013 10:11 AM

I interpret your "waste of time" response to mean you have nothing to support your beliefs.

Gee I thought I provided the support of that belief.

See: expressio unius est exclusio alterius

"This discussion could go on forever."

I agree. I provided the basis for my opinion, so I'm done with the discussion.
MatthewW4 (Arizona)
Posts: 500
Posted:
Tim,

I don't think you get it. You can pursue a claim in court under either contract law or torts. To claim under contract law, there must be a contract and the cases you cited are contract cases. Since there is no contract between the association and the tenant, the HOA would pursue the case under torts.

Torts are what allows you to sue someone you never met before for denting your fender or causing serious injury, among other things.

With all the posters on this forum claiming it is somehow illegal to sue a tenant who benefits from the non-payment of assessments I expected to see a flood of statutes or case law that supports this. So far, zip.
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,062
Posted:
Matthew,

Although there is no contract between the tenant and the Association, there is a contract (CC&Rs) between the owner and the Association. That contract specifically specifies that the owner is responsible for the assessments. I do believe that this would be a valid defense for the tenant.

Per the free dictionary, Three elements must be established in every tort action. First, the plaintiff must establish that the defendant was under a legal duty to act in a particular fashion. Second, the plaintiff must demonstrate that the defendant breached this duty by failing to conform his or her behavior accordingly. Third, the plaintiff must prove that he suffered injury or loss as a direct result of the defendant's breach.

I don't think you would be able to prove that the Tenant had a legal duty to pay the assessment. Therefore, from my perspective, I think the attorneys would make a lot of money and the Association would be laughed at by the court if your legal strategy was tried.

However, I could be wrong. So we will simply have to agree to disagree.

NOTE: Since the owner is not in good standing, the Association may typically withhold amenities from the member, their guests or tenants as this is typically authorized by the contract (CC&Rs).

TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,062
Posted:
I apologize to Steve. Sorry, I didn't intend to keep the discussion on that tangent. Agreeing to disagree should put the thread back on course.
MatthewW4 (Arizona)
Posts: 500
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By TimB4 on 04/29/2013 10:44 AM

I don't think you would be able to prove that the Tenant had a legal duty to pay the assessment. Therefore, from my perspective, I think the attorneys would make a lot of money and the Association would be laughed at by the court if your legal strategy was tried.

I agree that you could not prove that there was a contractual obligation for the tenant to pay the assessments.

No one has the right to receive services for which payments are normally due. The tenant is receiving the benefits of the services supplied by the association and no one has paid for them. The tenant's legal duty is to pay for what he has received and he breached that duty by accepting services without paying for them. That has caused the association to suffer a monetary loss as a direct result of the tenant's actions. I don't hear the judge laughing.

BTW, one of the drawbacks of most tort claims is that each side has to pay its own attorney fees, win or lose. That helps keep the costs down on both sides and encourages settlement.
MelissaP1 (Alabama)
Posts: 13,836
Posted:
Florida is the only state I know of that allows renters/tenants to pay back dues on properties the HOA may be foreclosing on. The renter then can sue their landlord/owner for that money back. It allows them to stay in the home without being evicted. Florida has many strange and sometime forward thinking rules/laws. Just don't assume it is for all states.

Former HOA President
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,062
Posted:
Matthew,

If you want to start another thread, I'd be happy to debate this with you.
Of course the debate of two laypersons won't matter in a court of law and I don't think that either of us will change the others opinion. Therefore, perhaps it's best to simply agree to disagree.
MatthewW4 (Arizona)
Posts: 500
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By TimB4 on 04/29/2013 5:33 PM
Matthew,

If you want to start another thread, I'd be happy to debate this with you.
Of course the debate of two laypersons won't matter in a court of law and I don't think that either of us will change the others opinion. Therefore, perhaps it's best to simply agree to disagree.

Agreed!

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