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SteveW9 (New Mexico)
Posts: 37
Posted:

An investment buyer in our New Mexico HOA community of 68 homes has purchased 10 homes which he rents. His objective is to purchase more homes. During special meetings he has 10 votes and is already taking control. Someday he will have 20 or more votes.

Is this issue discrimination?

In part, discrimination means restricting members of one group from opportunities or privileges that are available to another group; disadvantageous treatment or consideration. In other words, if you are treated worse than others for some arbitrary reason, then discrimination exists. The Voting Rights Act of 1965 outlawed discriminatory voting practices. Homeowner Associations (HOAs) are democracies at the basic level. Voting rights in our democracy do not apply. It is all about the by-laws and covenants.

Changing the covenants is NOW not an option. He has too much control. What else can we do? Complain to the ACLU? Steve

CarolR11 (Colorado)
Posts: 2,563
Posted:
Well, I have no background in the law or constitutional law or anything else that may apply to you, Steve.

But off the top of my head, HOAs are private (vs. public) entities, usually corporations. And you're probably heard of huge for-profit corporations where a few shareholders own, let's say, 80% of the company and dozens, maybe hundreds are numerical minorities who own just small fractions. Nothing "discriminatory" about it. I'm afraid you're misusing that word. So looking to federal law or the ACLU wouldn't seem to be helpful.

At the moment, you non-investors own the majority of your corporation and, combined, have the majority of the votes. You need to urge all of the other owners to vote on the matters that all owners can vote on. Now, there usually aren't too many of those. Are there in your HOA?

Are you under the control of homeowners and not the developer? Is there a Board of Directors? How many directors? Is he on it? Usually the Board decides most matters.

Please give examples of how this investor is "taking control."
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,062
Posted:
Hi Steve,

Lets take a look at your definition of discrimination.

Quote:
Posted By SteveW9 on 04/01/2013 3:59 PM

In part, discrimination means restricting members of one group from opportunities ... that are available to another group;

When the houses go on the market, are you or others being refused the opportunity to purchase the properties? If not, then one could conclude that you are being offered the same opportunity as others.

Quote:
Posted By SteveW9 on 04/01/2013 3:59 PM

In part, discrimination means restricting members of one group from . . . privileges that are available to another group;

When it comes time for nominations to be candidates for the Board, are you or others denied this privilege? When it comes time to vote, are you or others denied your privilege to cast the total number of votes under your control? If you or others are denied voting privileges, is this denial based on failure to be current with assessments and are others held to that same requirement?

Are you and others receiving the same services as this individual? Do you and others have access to the same amenities as this individual?

If all of this is happening, it doesn't appear that privileges are being denied.

Quote:
Posted By SteveW9 on 04/01/2013 3:59 PM

In part, discrimination means ... members of one group [have] disadvantageous treatment or consideration.

If you or others are not being denied an opportunity to be considered a candidate for the Board, access to amenities or common areas, being able to cast the number of votes authorized (typically 1 vote per lot owned) and the opportunity to purchase additional lots if so desired it doesn't appear that you or others are receiving disadvantageous treatment or consideration.

Quote:
Posted By SteveW9 on 04/01/2013 3:59 PM

In other words, if you are treated worse than others for some arbitrary reason, then discrimination exists.

I expect that the CC&Rs specify x number of votes per lot owned.
I expect that Assessments are also paid based on a per lot basis.
I expect that you and others had the opportunity to purchase all the property you could afford.
I expect that the rules which may prevent you or others from casting a vote or enjoying amenities are applied equally to all in the development.
If proxies are allowed, I expect that you and others may solicit proxies from other owners so you or others are able to control the votes.

If these expectations are correct, then it appears that you or others are not being treated worse for an arbitrary reason.

Quote:
Posted By SteveW9 on 04/01/2013 3:59 PM

An investment buyer in our New Mexico HOA community of 68 homes has purchased 10 homes which he rents. His objective is to purchase more homes. During special meetings he has 10 votes and is already taking control. Someday he will have 20 or more votes.

Is this issue discrimination?

In part, discrimination means restricting members of one group from opportunities or privileges that are available to another group; disadvantageous treatment or consideration. In other words, if you are treated worse than others for some arbitrary reason, then discrimination exists. The Voting Rights Act of 1965 outlawed discriminatory voting practices. Homeowner Associations (HOAs) are democracies at the basic level. Voting rights in our democracy do not apply. It is all about the by-laws and covenants.

Changing the covenants is NOW not an option. He has too much control. What else can we do? Complain to the ACLU? Steve


Quote:
Posted By SteveW9 on 04/01/2013 3:59 PM

The Voting Rights Act of 1965 outlawed discriminatory voting practices. Homeowner Associations (HOAs) are democracies at the basic level. Voting rights in our democracy do not apply. It is all about the by-laws and covenants.

HOAs are actually civil contracts with the CC&Rs being the contract.
As a civil contract, the law you post about would not apply. However, other laws would.

HOAs are not a democracy they, like the United States, is actually a Republic where the governing body is elected by the membership to make decisions on behalf of the membership. For the United States, the membership is the citizens limited to one vote per person authorized to vote. For HOA/COAs the membership is the owners of the property, typically limited to one vote per lot owned.

Quote:
Posted By SteveW9 on 04/01/2013 3:59 PM
During special meetings he has 10 votes and is already taking control. Someday he will have 20 or more votes.

Out of 68 properties, if someone could collect proxies or encourage other owners to participate in the annual meeting and exercise their right to vote, even if the individual did own 20 properties, they would still not have enough votes to control the outcome of an election.

Quote:
Posted By SteveW9 on 04/01/2013 3:59 PM

Is this issue discrimination?

Based on what has been provided, I would have to say no it is not discrimination.

Quote:
Posted By SteveW9 on 04/01/2013 3:59 PM

What else can we do?

Honestly, organize and gather support from the other owners.
As pointed out earlier, if the other owners banded together, this investor would not control the votes.

Currently with only 10 lots owned, if the other owners did band together, they could amend the governing documents.

This individual only has control of the votes if the enough members chose not to participate in the process.

Hope this helps,

Tim

TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,062
Posted:
Steve,

I've been rereading your posting and came to the conclusion that you are of the belief that votes within the Association should be 1 per owner vs. 1 per lot.

Based on this belief, do you also believe that the expenses of the association should be based on number of owners instead of the number of lots?

Example:

Annual Expenses = $50,000
Number of lots = 68
Number of owners = 58 (1 individual owns 10 lots).

If Assessments are based on number of lots, the assessment would be $725.29 per lot

If Assessments are based on number of owners, this amount would be $862.07 per owner

SteveW9 (New Mexico)
Posts: 37
Posted:
The investment buyer is our VP. Our HOA recently had a special meeting to vote on a $20.00 increase in dues. The vote was 32 FOR and 24 AGAINST. Our VP had 10 votes FOR.
GlenL (Ohio)
Posts: 5,491
Posted:
Well while he voted to increase your assessment $20.00, he also voted to increase his $200.00.

Studies show that 5 out of 4 people have problems with fractions
GlenL (Ohio)
Posts: 5,491
Posted:
32 + 24 = 56 you have 68 homes, if the ones who failed to vote had voted against the increase it would have been 32 to 36 and the measure would have lost. I'd blame those 12 more than him.

Studies show that 5 out of 4 people have problems with fractions
CarolR11 (Colorado)
Posts: 2,563
Posted:
In addition, Steve, plenty voted the same way Mr. Investor did. Why? Do they think that a dues increase is necessary? Does the fact that there is an increase benefit Mr. Investor differently than everyone else?

Those who didn't vote are lousy HOA citizens and caused the increase. But maybe many would've voted for it anyhow. We don't know.
MelissaP1 (Alabama)
Posts: 13,836
Posted:
A HOA is only funded by it's members for it's members. His raising the dues also means he raised his too. So there must be a project that needs to be done requiring more money to complete.

Former HOA President
SteveW9 (New Mexico)
Posts: 37
Posted:
Thanks to everyone for your comments. How here is the rest of the story…the short version.

Homeowners in our HOA owe more than 16K in past dues. One homeowner, Mr. X, owes more than 8K. Mr. X is probably in his early fifties. He plans to stay in his home till he dies. Yes, we have filed liens on everyone that is more than 60 days past dues including Mr. X. He is being taken to small claims court.

Now back to our Investment Buyer….He says that a lien and a small claims judgment are worthless pieces of paper. For him, it would much easier and faster to increase our dues or assess our properties for a few thousand dollars. After all, he claims that these deadbeats will eventually sale their homes. He will be there ready to buy them. But in the meantime, he wants immediate results. Eventually, he will most likely get his way.

Thanks again for your comments. Steve

MelissaP1 (Alabama)
Posts: 13,836
Posted:
The lawsuit/small claims court waste of money and time. It only gives you a judgement not money. The person can sale and never pay a dime. A lien means can not sell until lien paid. If they will not budge, been over a year, and are not in bank foreclosure, then go the foreclosure route. Which stops as soon as they pay.

Former HOA President
TeresaE2 (Ohio)
Posts: 1
Posted:
Hi Dad! In our assoc of 19 homes, only two can be rentals at one time. And the rental has to be at least a years lease. Not weekly or 6 months. That is written in our bylaws. So maybe your bylaws need to be updated. Good luck. Love u

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