💬 Join us to post & get advice from 50,000 HOA & Condo leaders.

Create Free Account →

⚡ Takes 30 seconds

Already a member? Log in

CharlotteW1 (Massachusetts)
Posts: 4
Posted:
Our association just voted on new By-laws. There is some question in regards to if they passed or not because the current ones are ambiguous regarding " voting membership". Now in researching the By-laws that we're currently working under (amended in 2008) it's been found that no one realized that the ammended By-Laws of 2008 may not have passed either. What now? The By-Laws previous to that are from 1990. Do we revert to those to interprete this vote?
Thanks for the help
SteveM9 (Massachusetts)
Posts: 3,699
Posted:
Quote:
it's been found that no one realized that the ammended By-Laws of 2008 may not have passed either. What now?


So vote to pass the 2008 amendments. Done.
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
If challenged in a court of law and the Board could not prove the bylaws were properly adopted, then the court could rule them invalid and force you back to work under the last set that was valid.

If not challenged, then you could likely use them.

If you know that they were not properly adopted, then yes you should revert to which ever set is valid and follow those requirements unless your corporate laws (applicable if the Association is incorporated) specify a different amount to use. Note: many laws may defer to the governing documents and only apply if the governing document is silent.

Tim
JohnC46 (South Carolina)
Posts: 14,265
Posted:
Char

2008 Bylaw amendments would have had to pass under the 1990 Bylaws. If they did not, then I believe you should be operating under the 1990 Bylaws.

Please clarify the ares under discussion/contention.

Thanks

JohnC46 (South Carolina)
Posts: 14,265
Posted:
Char

Voting Members are generally owners in Good Standing with only one vote per unit/home. When the unit/home is owned by more then one person, they must designate one person as the voting member. In Good Standing usually means no overdue dues and/or assessments. You can get an arguement if unpaid fines are considered overdue dues and/or assessments.

Also a Voting Member usually does not have to be a resident.

Hope this helps.
CharlotteW1 (Massachusetts)
Posts: 4
Posted:
The By-laws from 2008 say that new By-laws need to have 2/3 of the voting membership of the Association vote in the affirmative by being present or by proxy.
The 1990 By-laws say that new By-laws can be passed by 2/3 of the membership that are present at the meeting or by proxy rather than 2/3 of the entire membership. Of course in each case there needs to be a quorum.
If the 2008 By-laws are legal because no one realize until now that they may not have passed .... the newly proposed bylaws do not pass. If we need to revert the 1990 bylaws the proposed bylaws pass.
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
Lets say you have 100 members, 98 of them allowed to vote, 50 actually attended and voted (expecting 1 vote per lot)

2/3 of the membership = 67 votes needed (2/3 of 100 rounded up)
2/3 of the voting membership = 66 votes needed (2/3 of 98 rounded up)
2/3 of the membership that are present = 34 votes needed (2/3 of 50 rounded up)

Therefore, based on above numbers:

2008 amendments would be legal if there were 34 yea votes

You need to determine the # of lots represented (in person or by proxy) at the 2008 meeting from the sign-in sheet and the number of votes cast (in case a lot attending didn't cast a vote) and then count the ballots (if they were retained).

JohnC46 (South Carolina)
Posts: 14,265
Posted:
Char

Pesonally I doubt you could round up the stuff from 2008 but maybe there is a way out of this.

1. Explain the problem and request a new vote be held in which you will use the harder to achieve method to make the easier to achieve method the new Bylaw.

2. Lawyer up. The lawyer might just say that the 2012 vote was held under a specific understanding (the 2008 Bylaws) and that will hold up.

Did this whole issue come up because someone is objecting?

Could that someone be the OP?

BruceF1 (Connecticut)
Posts: 2,535
Posted:
Some states have a statute of limitations where the clock starts ticking when the offense (violation, mistake, whatever) occurs (in this case, passing amended bylaws) after which no challenge to the HOA can be made. I don't know if Massachusetts is one of those states or not. I think in Connecticut it is one year, but I would have to look it up. You would have to check to see if Massachusetts has such a statute of limitations on HOA actions.

🎯 You've read this entire discussion

Join the conversation with 50,000 HOA & Condo Leaders:

  • ✓ Ask follow-up questions
  • ✓ Share your experience
  • ✓ Get expert advice
  • ✓ Access 350,000 discussions
Create Free Account →

⚡ Takes 30 seconds

Already a member? Log in here