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LeoS1 (Florida)
Posts: 17
Posted:
Our HOA in Orlando FL has 1002 units and we are passing an amendment to the By_laws which requires 50% of the membership to approve. We have 50 units which are 90 days delinquent or more and we have suspended their voting rights. FL 720 says the voting members suspended do not count towards any number needed for quorum, elections, etc. Does that mean we now just need 50% of 952 units not 1002 units to pass our new bylaws?
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
No.
That means if the members who have voting rights suspended show up, they can not be counted toward a number needed for a quorum.
If the language says x% of lots present, then those lots would not be counted toward that percentage.

Examples:

100 lots, 1 vote per lot, all show up, 25 not allowed to vote, 70 votes cast

Language - Results Needed

50% of the members present - 50% of 75 voting members present= 38 yea votes needed
50% of the membership - 50% of 100 lots = 51 yea votes needed (since you would need 1 more vote over 50%)
50% of votes cast - 50% of 70 votes cast = 36 yea votes needed (since you would need 1 more vote over 50%)
SheriC (Florida)
Posts: 1
Posted:
You need to check with your county to make sure you're following your county laws for changing bylaws. In our county, we have to have 75% of legal homeowners votes to change Bylaws. Our last BOD changed the Bylaws; even paid for an attorney to "approve the changes", then recorded them, unknowing about county law. However, our county has a law that says that it is illegal to change the Bylaws of an HOA without 75% of the voting membership approval of the new changes. I would check your county's rules to see if they don't have similar laws or rules.
JeanneK3 (Maryland)
Posts: 562
Posted:
Also check state laws. Jeanne
PeterD3 (Florida)
Posts: 708
Posted:
I believe Leo is correct in his initial assessment.

The suspension of a voting right prevents that interest from being considered for ANY purpose, including a quorum, an election, or the votes required to approve an action.

i.e. Lots who have had their voting interest suspended essentially 'no longer exist' during the suspension period.

Thus they are not included in determining the amount of votes (%) need to cause any action.

Here's the actual statute verbage:
"A voting interest or consent right allocated to a parcel or member which has been suspended by the association may not be counted towards the total number of voting interests for any purpose, including, but not limited to, the number of voting interests necessary to constitute a quorum, the number of voting interests required to conduct an election, or the number of voting interests required to approve an action under this chapter or pursuant to the governing documents."
TheI (Florida)
Posts: 40
Posted:
Yes LeoS1 you are correct. If you legally suspended the voting rights of the people who are delinquent you can subtract that number from your total number of units. But the second the people who are delinquent pay their voting rights are restored.
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By PeterD3 on 04/16/2012 7:06 AM
I believe Leo is correct in his initial assessment.

The suspension of a voting right prevents that interest from being considered for ANY purpose, including a quorum, an election, or the votes required to approve an action.

Peter,

Based on your interpretation, a rouge board could suspend the voting rights of most of the membership and then amend the CC&Rs. Example:

100 lots, board suspends voting privileges of 80 lots.
CC&Rs require 2/3 to amend.

2/3 of 20 = 14 vote needed to amend the CC&Rs.

I don't think that this was the intent of that passage. I interpret it to also be dependent on the language used for required passage:

x% of membership = the entire membership irregardless of voting rights
x% of members entitled to vote = only those who have voting rights
x% of voting interest = only those who have voting rights
x% of votes cast = only the number of valid ballots received
x% of members present at meeting = only those who have voting rights (based on statute)

PeterD3 (Florida)
Posts: 708
Posted:

Please explain how [in Florida]: "a rouge board could suspend the voting rights of most of the membership..."?
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
Peter,

Obviously I was taking an extreme to make a point.

To respond to your question, Not having read all of FL laws, if voting privileges can be suspended only for nonpayment of assessments, then it would be difficult. If voting privileges can be suspended for covenant violations, it could be possible to minimize those who may vote against a proposal.

However, my point is adopting an amendment is also dependent on the language used for required passage and, depending on that language, that section of the statute might not fully apply. Yes the voting rights could be suspended and those lots would not count toward a quorum but if the language calls for x% of the membership vs. x% of the voting interest (etc. see last post) then you would still need x% of the entire membership for the amendment to be adopted.

Granted, it's likely if someone is behind in assessments that they won't challenge the vote. That wouldn't prevent another or a future owner from challenging it. Therefore, the Association needs to understand and comply with the language within it's documents as well as the language within the statutes.
JohnC46 (South Carolina)
Posts: 14,265
Posted:
Tim

I understood your post about how a rogue BOD could (in theory) do as you said.

It is important that people consider/think how something can be taken to the extreme when considering "rules/regulations/laws, whatevers.

It seems to me FL association rules/regulations/laws often step on each other as little to no forethought went into them.

Am I saying many lawmakers (politicians) rarely think past their nose/donations.....LOL

PeterD3 (Florida)
Posts: 708
Posted:
Prove me wrong.
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By PeterD3 on 04/17/2012 5:18 PM
Prove me wrong.

Peter,

I'm not interested in proving you or anyone on this forum wrong.

When a member and their Board differ on interpretation of a statute, if one side or both sides are not willing to find common ground it becomes the courts responsibility to decide which interpretation would be applicable.

Tim

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