CraigM2 (Ohio)
Posts: 5
Posts: 5
Posted:
Our community is in Ohio, and the developer created the HOA with no provisions for amending the declarations or bylaws.
Last year, Ohio passed the Planned Communities Act, which has the following language about amendments:
Unless otherwise specified in the declaration or bylaws, the owners may amend the declaration and bylaws by the consent of seventy-five per cent of the owners, either in writing or in a meeting called for that purpose. No amendment to the declaration or bylaws is effective until filed in the office of the county recorder.
Our question, which doesn't seem to be addressed is, what is the 75% based on? Is it 75% of all home owners? 75% of home owners eligible to vote? Or as the law states "a meeting called for this purpose"... if a meeting is properly called and residents informed, is the 75% based on people who vote at the meeting?
The challenge we're facing is we have many homes in foreclosure, and many homes with owners who never respond to anything the HOA sends out, and only a tiny percentage of residents come to the annual meeting. So it seems impossible to get 75% of all homes to vote.
We can elect directors for the HOA with whoever comes to the meeting, (usually a dozen or so people out of 450+ homes) so it seems to me that if its legal to elect directors, it should be legal to modify the bylaws.
Any ideas or other interpretations of this?
-Craig
Last year, Ohio passed the Planned Communities Act, which has the following language about amendments:
Unless otherwise specified in the declaration or bylaws, the owners may amend the declaration and bylaws by the consent of seventy-five per cent of the owners, either in writing or in a meeting called for that purpose. No amendment to the declaration or bylaws is effective until filed in the office of the county recorder.
Our question, which doesn't seem to be addressed is, what is the 75% based on? Is it 75% of all home owners? 75% of home owners eligible to vote? Or as the law states "a meeting called for this purpose"... if a meeting is properly called and residents informed, is the 75% based on people who vote at the meeting?
The challenge we're facing is we have many homes in foreclosure, and many homes with owners who never respond to anything the HOA sends out, and only a tiny percentage of residents come to the annual meeting. So it seems impossible to get 75% of all homes to vote.
We can elect directors for the HOA with whoever comes to the meeting, (usually a dozen or so people out of 450+ homes) so it seems to me that if its legal to elect directors, it should be legal to modify the bylaws.
Any ideas or other interpretations of this?
-Craig