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AnitaT (Arizona)
Posts: 18
Posted:
We are a HOA in AZ and have voted and recorded not to have rentals. A foreclosed unit has been bought by an investment firm. They are advertising lease for three years and have a portion of the lease amount to go towards the purchase. Can we enforce the no rental clause or can they ignore this and legally lease?
LarryB13 (Arizona)
Posts: 4,099
Posted:
A lease is just a rental for a specific period of time. Put the kabosh on this rent-to-own scam, starting with a letter from your attorney to the investment firm. Your recorded CC&R's now require owner-occupancy and whoever leases the unit will not meet that requirement. Your BOD may wish to post a notice on the entry door(s) to the unit giving notice to any prospective tenant that they will not be able to live there unless their name is on the deed.
PetunkaM (Florida)
Posts: 1,009
Posted:
Anita,

They are probably offering lease-to-purchase option (LTOP) where the firm will convey all the owner’s rights to the lessee. At the end of the lease term the lessee has an option to buy the unit or not.

In Florida, when the lessee is also responsible for paying assessments he/she becomes a ‘member’ of the Association. This is why our lease agreements require to say who will be responsible for paying assessments. Of course, I do not know if the same applies to Arizona; please check your docs and state law carefully.

You should review the lease agreement first and then decide if you want to fight it keeping in mind that it is not a 'true' rental. Or, have your attorney to review the lease.

PetunkaM (Florida)
Posts: 1,009
Posted:
Larry,

In some states it is all about the money and not necessary about who is on the deed. There is a difference between an owner and the member at least in Florida:

“ ‘Member” means a member of an association, and may include, but is not limited to, a parcel owner or an association representing parcel owners or a combination thereof, and includes any person or entity obligated by the governing documents to pay an assessment or amenity fee.

I also tend disagree that lease is just a rental...
LarryB13 (Arizona)
Posts: 4,099
Posted:
Tell me how a lease and a rental differ. I've rented both real and personal property and I have leased both real and personal property. I never found much difference except that leases were longer duration and usually for a specific length of time.

The HOA in this case has chosen to forbid rentals. The exact wording would be nice to see.

Membership normally runs with the property. The person or entity who owns the property is the member, but that depends on the wording in the declaration.
AnitaT (Arizona)
Posts: 18
Posted:
The CC&R's read: Notwithstanding any provision herein to the contrary, no owner of a unit shall rent or lease such unit, provided that any owner renting or leasing a unit at the time of adaption of this provision may continue renting or leasing such unit.

The remainder of the CC&R's read rules pertaining to the Grandfathered Rentals.

This never was a rental so therefore they have no Grandfathered Rights.

In my mind, this investment company cannot lease and we have a case against them.
PetunkaM (Florida)
Posts: 1,009
Posted:
This never was a rental so therefore they have no Grandfathered Rights.

Anita,

Has the investment company purchased the unit before the 'no rental/lease' amendment was recorded?
AnitaT (Arizona)
Posts: 18
Posted:
The CC&R's were recorded April 6, 2005.

This investment company purchased this property July 26, 2011 and it was recorded August 2, 2011.
PetunkaM (Florida)
Posts: 1,009
Posted:
Anita,

It seems the investment company goofed a big way if they are going for lease-to-purchase option. Have you talked to them about it?
AnitaT (Arizona)
Posts: 18
Posted:
Yes, in great length. They seem to do what every they want. They bypassed the escrow company even tho there was a lien and back dues owed. They said the bank had taken care of everything.....of course, the bank didn't and say it is not in their hands now. The investment company said that they were not interested in anything in the past.

PetunkaM (Florida)
Posts: 1,009
Posted:
Anita,
Some foreclosure laws are just too complicated and vary from state to state. But, what does the investment company say about having the right to lease the unit? I’d be very interested knowing how they can ignore the covenants?
I just am not clear what you mean by ‘This never was a rental so therefore they have no Grandfathered Rights.’ If no lease/rental amendment was adopted in 2005 and they purchased the unit in 2011 they would not be grandfathered in under any circumstances. Correct?
AnitaT (Arizona)
Posts: 18
Posted:
Yes.

AnitaT (Arizona)
Posts: 18
Posted:
Yes.

PetunkaM (Florida)
Posts: 1,009
Posted:
Tell me how a lease and a rental differ. I've rented both real and personal property and I have leased both real and personal property. I never found much difference except that leases were longer duration and usually for a specific length of time. [Larry]

Larry,

Well, we almost agree but not quite. Rental agreements differ from leases. Leases are different type of contracts conveying property to a lessee for a specified period. Not true with rentals.

Standard rental agreement can be a verbal agreement, while lease must be in writing and MUST include a set period of residence, where rental does not. Typically, rental agreements are automatically renewed and the tenant can cancel giving a 30-day notice. The owner can increase the rent at any time (rental control laws apply). Not true with leases. Lease can include a lease-to-purchase option. Rental cannot. ..

I do not see one reason why any HOA should allow rentals. Leases, yes. Many HOAs in Florida also allow a 90-day lease which must be in writing and subject to all restrictions/rules.
LarryB13 (Arizona)
Posts: 4,099
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By AnitaT on 09/05/2011 8:21 AM
Yes, in great length. They seem to do what every they want. They bypassed the escrow company even tho there was a lien and back dues owed. They said the bank had taken care of everything.....of course, the bank didn't and say it is not in their hands now. The investment company said that they were not interested in anything in the past.

Here's the bad news: By statute in Arizona a first mortgage is superior to an association's lien. The bank had no obligation to pay any assessments or liens that the former owner racked up. You can sue for a money judgment against the former owner but based on experience I would not do that as you will incur more expenses by filing suit without a certainty of actually collecting the debt. See ARS 33-1807(B)(2) at
http://www.azleg.gov/FormatDocument.asp?inDoc=/ars/33/01807.htm&Title=33&DocType=ARS

I hate to say it but the new owners are not liable for any assessments, fines, or other fees that were incurred before title passed to them.
MelissaP1 (Alabama)
Posts: 13,836
Posted:
LarryB13 is right that they don't owe what the former owners did. The new owners get a clean slate.

Here's the issue with limiting renting/leasing in a HOA. The HOA can't intefere with the owner's contract. If the mortgage/loan company allows them to rent out their property then the HOA can't interfere or impose that restriction. Now some states those laws are different. You will have to look up what your state allows. Otherwise a good lawyer could easily blow through your rental/lease limitations.

This is a hot button issue with HOA's. It would be great to be able to limit or ban renting in a HOA. However, if push comes to shove, it's something that may lack the enforcement the HOA desires. Your best talking to a lawyer to verify if indeed the HOA could have put this rule into their documentation.

Former HOA President
PetunkaM (Florida)
Posts: 1,009
Posted:
Melissa,

are you saying a property purchased thru foreclosure is not subjected to the covenants in some states? Can you name a state where this apply?

Anita, have you checked the deed?
RogerB (Colorado)
Posts: 5,067
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By AnitaT on 09/05/2011 7:10 AM
The CC&R's read: Notwithstanding any provision herein to the contrary, no owner of a unit shall rent or lease such unit, provided that any owner renting or leasing a unit at the time of adaption of this provision may continue renting or leasing such unit.

The remainder of the CC&R's read rules pertaining to the Grandfathered Rentals.

This never was a rental so therefore they have no Grandfathered Rights.

In my mind, this investment company cannot lease and we have a case against them.

Anita, it appears the owner is in violation of the Covenants and therefore should be fined in accordance with your association's fine schedule. And if the amount fined ($xx,000) will not solve the problem the owner can be taken to court. One problem is the clause in your CC&Rs may be found to be unreasonable by a judge.
RogerB (Colorado)
Posts: 5,067
Posted:
Attached is wording which may alieviate the problems related to investors buying and of problem renters.
RogerB (Colorado)
Posts: 5,067
Posted:
Oops, see following.

New Owners must occupy the property they purchase for the first 24 months following the date of purchase. After which new Owners may lease their unit for minimum term of at least twelve months to a single family or while living in the Unit may lease a portion of their unit to a maximum of two unrelated tenants. All leases shall include a statement that failure by the lessee to comply with all of the governing documents shall be cause to terminate the lease. The Owner shall provide an executed copy of a lease; the names of all occupants of the Unit, a phone number and/or email address by which the lessee may be contacted; and the license numbers of all of the lessee’s vehicles. No Owner may lease their unit for transient or hotel purposes. The Owner shall be responsible to provide and review the Governing Documents with each leasee. Failure by a leasee to comply with all restrictions in the Governing Documents may be cause for the Association to void the lease or to pursue any other remedies available at law or in equity.
AnitaT (Arizona)
Posts: 18
Posted:
Thank you for all of the replies and information.

Investment company has now advised the person managing this property that this property cannot be leased or rented.

MelissaP1 (Alabama)
Posts: 13,836
Posted:
Petunca what are you talking about? How the property is purchased makes no difference if you have to follow the convenants or not. If you purchase a home in a foreclosure, it doesn't mean you assume the debt of the previous owner to the HOA. The purchaser pays the costs of foreclosure and then assumes a mortgage on the property. It's a clean slate for them. You can't make the new owner pay backed dues of any other previous owner.

I find a serious issue with that last sentance in regards to the lease wording. Unless the HOA OWNS that property, they can't interfere with contracts or impose fines on that property. A HOA doesn't own property, they own the rights to manage it more or less. Common property is property all the owners have an interest in but is not owned by an individual. Which means one individual can't tell another what they can do on that property. It has to be a MAJORITY of the invested owners to decide what can or can not be done. Hence why a HOA has a Board and individual voting rights. It also shows that even if the owners want a rule restricting rentals, it also can't interfere with an individuals rights.

Former HOA President
PetunkaM (Florida)
Posts: 1,009
Posted:
‘Here's the issue with limiting renting/leasing in a HOA. The HOA can't intefere with the owner's contract. If the mortgage/loan company allows them to rent out their property then the HOA can't interfere or impose that restriction.’ [Melissa]

Melissa,
sorry, I am not talking about assuming debt.
The sentence above is what I was talking about. Am I misreading it? Anita says they have no rentals/leases since 2005. The grandfather law applied. The investment company bought in 2011 and advertises a lease-to-purchase option. Anita asked ‘Can we enforce the no rental clause or can they ignore this and legally lease?‘ At least I think this is how the discussion started.

MelissaP1 (Alabama)
Posts: 13,836
Posted:
Again, the "lease to own" condition is a condition of the loan/mortgager. They are the ones who can put the restrictions on the loan. There are many loan progams with these type of restrictions irregardless of what the HOA's rules are. I've seen some with no rental for 3 years of ownership. It's quite complicated. It's the rental/owership ratio that determines the types of loans the HOA/local area receives. FHA loans aren't available everywhere but are a really desirable program. A person would have to look for a different loan program in order to buy which could limit the number of available buyers for the sellers.

Former HOA President
MelissaP1 (Alabama)
Posts: 13,836
Posted:
Let me clear up what I was saying. All mortgage companies are not created equal. Some allow a certain amount of risk whiles others do not. Much like buying a car. Mortgage companies see too many red flags, they won't loan out their money or use a higher rate. The PUD form a HOA fills out gauges the "health" of the HOA. This includes the owner/renter ratio. If it is too high, less loan programs are offered. If it's good, then more people can qualify for more loan options.

The bank can't control the HOA's policies. They just have to abide to them like everyone else. However, they can control what conditions they loan out their money. This means they can put on the restrictions of lease or offering "No money down, 5% down...1K moves you in...etc...". In this case it's "Lease option".

It's all fine and good the HOA tries to limit rentals and enforces restrictions. At the end of the day it comes down to money and who holds it. 99% of the time it's the mortgage/bank. That's why unless the HOA actually owns the property, they can't really interfere with rental agreements...

Former HOA President
RogerB (Colorado)
Posts: 5,067
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By AnitaT on 09/07/2011 9:36 AM
Thank you for all of the replies and information.

Investment company has now advised the person managing this property that this property cannot be leased or rented.

Our management company would advise the title company prior to closing on this restriction. The company managing the association should have prevented the sale to an investment company base on what Anita posted.

Melissa, what you stated is correct the lease is between the owner and their leasee. The association can not terminate the lease. However, the lease can be terminated by the owner as stated: "All leases shall include a statement that failure by the lessee to comply with all of the governing documents shall be cause to terminate the lease." The association can encourage the owner in this regard when the leasee fails to comply with all restrictions in the Governing Documents or "to pursue any other remedies available at law or in equity." This may include numerous large fines for violations of the Covenants and ultimately court action when required.
AnitaT (Arizona)
Posts: 18
Posted:
This investment company bypassed the escrow company as they bought several properties in a "lot". They recorded 217 special warranty deeds in just one county. Hard telling how many more they took over. The escrow company assigned by the bank was contacted and they had no records regarding this sale. Interesting.
PetunkaM (Florida)
Posts: 1,009
Posted:
Again, the "lease to own" condition is a condition of the loan/mortgager. [Melissa]

There is no mortgagee involved. The LTOP was advertised by the intvestment company who bought the unit in foreclosure and possibly for cash. At least this is how I understand it. Never mind.

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