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PetunkaM (Florida)
Posts: 1,009
Posted:
Let’s assume a couple lives in the community for many years but only the wife is on the deed. Technically, her husband is not a member of the association. Does anyone have a provision in the by-laws to allow a spouse, who is not on the deed, to be treated as a member?
MelissaP1 (Alabama)
Posts: 13,836
Posted:
We had a situation like this. Their name may not be on the deed but the law views a married couple as a single entity. What the couple we had did is switch out each year who was on the board. That way atleast 1 of them was on the board each year. This is okay I think as long as BOTH are not serving at the same time. As for the marriage, it might not work out so well as if they disagree on how to vote...LOL...

Former HOA President
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
This issue will really depend on how strict the Association is or the governing documents are.

If there are no limiting qualifications for who can serve on the Board, then being a member or not won't technically matter. If your Association allows proxies you can consider the spouse a proxy. Unless the Association is actually taking the time to check deeds, no one will even be aware of the issue.

As an example:

My Association has one member suffering from an illness. The adult child explained the situation and asked that we address things to him. Even though the adult child is not on the deed, the Associations deals with the adult child. The Association has zero knowledge if this person is on the deed or not. Honestly, we don't care. The Assessments are being paid and the property maintained. If anything were to go to legal, the Lawyer would verify the owner of the property anyway prior to filing a lien.

Granted, if someone ever wanted to challenge the results of a vote, it may or may not come into play. This hasn't happened yet. When it does, I suspect that the Association will no longer accept the word of an individual and spend time and/or money to maintain copies of the deeds for all lots.

Tim
PetunkaM (Florida)
Posts: 1,009
Posted:
Melissa,

Just a couple of points. Florida HOA law clearly states that ALL MEMBERS of the association are eligible to serve on the board. There is nothing, I know of, precluding husband and wife or two partners living in the same household to serve as board members at the same time, as long as they are members. Also, the Voting Certificates are checked against the deeds.
What does it mean ‘the federal law views a married couple as a single entity’? Does it mean a wife is financially responsible for paying mortgage on the property she does not own? Does it mean if I am a member of AAA my husband automatically gets the same privileges? Of course not.
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
Petunka,

I believe that Melissa was expressing a personal viewpoint of having two or more members from one household serving on the Board at the same time. Personally, I agree with that viewpoint.

I know that it's certainly legal to have them serve on the board at the same time (unless the governing documents say otherwise). However, it can cause additional issues from membership perceptions of the situation. Issues could relate to the officer positions as having one member serve as President and their spouse (who is also a member) serve as Treasurer could easily cause perception issues. Issues could relate to any new resolutions or guideline approvals. Even if it is legal, the issues caused by the membership perception might not be worth it.

Tim
PetunkaM (Florida)
Posts: 1,009
Posted:
Tim,

Your reasoning makes sense but that is not the issue I am trying to raise. The issue here is that some spouses who are not members but are perfectly qualified to serve on the board will NOT accept that responsibility because the docs say the directors must be members. Do you blame them? I do not. So, the question is how to work around it? One way, I think, could be to flip out an amendment to the By-laws to allow spouses who are not on the deed to be treated as members (whatever that means)?
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
I understand your point.

Most of the documents I've seen have zero qualifications for Directors. Therefore, anyone could serve (member or not).

I haven't read FL law, does it specify that "only" members are allowed to serve or that members are "eligible" to serve? If it's only stating that they are eligible it might not preclude non-members from serving. It's possible that this was put in place to prevent eligibility requirements from excluding certain members. Again, I haven't read FL law.

Typically, the term "member" is defined within the articles of Incorporation with the definition repeated in each document. Therefore, it's possible that it would require a change in any document that carried the definition.

A bylaw amendment treating spouses who are not on the deed as members can have it's own issues. Just because the Association wants to treat them as members does that make them legally obligated as a member is? It also doesn't address where one spouse dies and the other finds a lifelong companion but doesn't marry or place them on the deed for financial reasons.

If the issue is about serving on the Board or in a committee, then this is the only thing that might need to be addressed (that is if there are any qualification requirements that would exclude non-members).

My Association has zero requirements to serve on the Board. A few years ago I took a petition around the development to add requirements, I discovered that limiting it to members only would have drastically limited the available volunteers. I chose to not go forward with the petition. If membership apathy is the issue, perhaps removing the requirements is the way to go rather than creating new ones.

Tim
TheI (Florida)
Posts: 40
Posted:
We had this problem a while back. Our documents define owner as the owner on record. Our PM took this to mean only the person on the deed is afforded memeber status. If only the husband is on the deed the wife can not vote unless given a proxy by the husband, attend meetings, communicate with the PM, ask any questions or see any offical records. The wife is not a member. I am not sure if this is a correct interpretation but that is what our PM told the board and that is the rule they are now following.
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
The1 -

In my opinion, that would be a correct interpretation. Our documents define owner the same way and a member as being the registered owner or owners.

I suspect that the strict enforcement of the term caused some issues when it was first implemented. It probably also causes additional work to verify the deeds, etc. As I stated, our Association hasn't gone to the strict interpretation of those terms. Although it can cause some potential future issue if a vote is challenged, I'm personally glad that we haven't gone to that extreme.

WillR (Michigan)
Posts: 68
Posted:
I am currently arguing this very issue in Circuit court. Our restriction state that each lot constitutes as a single member regardless of the number of common owners. A married couple is viewed as the same. Each lot gets one vote. Our restrictions even go as far to say that if you own more than one lot, you are still only a single member however you get the n umber of votes for the number of lots owned. We have a husband and wife on the board and what she wants is how he votes, so much so that we now have two others from one lot on the board. Your restriction maybe differently worded, but which ever way it is a conflict of interest to have a husband and wife or common owners on the board at the same time. It gives to appearance of control by a group in stead of a democracy. Check the wording of your documents to see where you stand. My opinion is it's "Bad business" to have a husband and wife on at the same time.
PetunkaM (Florida)
Posts: 1,009
Posted:
Will,

Why does everything have to take on a different color? First you do not seem understand the question I asked. Second, I am not advocating that both husband and wife should serve on the Board at the same time. I only said there is nothing in the HOA law to prevent both husband and wife to run if they are both members. If the members do not want both of them to serve, do not nominate them/do not vote for them. And yes, only one member can vote at members’ meetings regardless how many people are on the deed or, if owned by a corporation or some other entity. (FL Condominium law is different and the FL legislature may change that HOA provision also;).
BarbaraP3 (Maryland)
Posts: 90
Posted:
Our governing documents include all members of the household as members of the association....see below

Our declarations state:

Owner means any person or persons who hold fee simple title.
Every person identified as an "owner" under section xxx shall be a member of the association.
Only one vote per lot no matter how many "owners" are on the deed.

By-laws state

Each of the following persons shall be entitled to all rights and use of facilities in xyz assn, except for the right to vote:
a, spounse and children and any other person constituting the household of an owner; b, guests of owne;, c, lessees as to any unit/lot

Hope this helps out.

WillR (Michigan)
Posts: 68
Posted:
Well then lets looks at it another way then, if as I described before holds true. That one member per lot and as you are stating that only the wife is on the deed, then how could the spouse be considered a member if he doesn't have an interest in the property. I do not own where you own nor am I on any deed , does that make me a member too!
RichardP13 (California)
Posts: 1,767
Posted:
Last year we amended our Bylaws and added qualifications to serve on the Board of Directors.

Must be an Member of the Association as defined in the CCRs

1. Must be 18 years of age
2. Cannot be more than 30 days delinquent
3. Ceases to be a Member of the Association
4. Cannot serve if Co-Owner is already a member of the Board
5. Cannot miss 3 consecutive meetings or 3 meetings in a 9 month period.

Our Voting rules state one vote per Unit.

An Owner is stated in our CCRs as referring to as the record Owner(s)of fee simple title, but excluding those having such interests as security for the performance of the obligation.
PetunkaM (Florida)
Posts: 1,009
Posted:
This conversation seems hopeless, am sorry to say.
TheI (Florida)
Posts: 40
Posted:
It seems like your question was answered. No one that answered seems to have a bylaw to let a spouse who is not on title to be classified a member.
You docs have a definition of the word "owner" and if you are in Florida it probably says something to the effect of the person on title or the person of record. Why would you want to open the can of worms to let someone who does not have vested interest in the property to be involved in the association? Tell the people who are not on title to suck it up, fill out a quick claim deed and file it with the clerks office then they would be on title.
Trying to put it in your docs does not seem like a good idea. Who would you include, only husband and wife, what about same sex couples that were married in another state, what about common law marriages which is still a classification in Florida? Too much room for error.
PetunkaM (Florida)
Posts: 1,009
Posted:
TheI

What error? We can certainly vote to somehow ease the requirements and allow a non-member to run for the board but telling the people to ‘suck it up and fill out a quick claim’ is, to put it mildly ,rather a juvenile approach. Keep in mind that someone else’s finances are none of your business.
EllieD (Vermont)
Posts: 446
Posted:
PetunkaM

Rather than trying to find a way to “make someone a member”, who is not a member/owner, why not just amended your documents to allow someone who is a non-member, such as a spouse not on the Deed, to be a director?

IF your State Statutes allow – perhaps consider a bylaw change with the “number of non-owners to be allowed” chosen to insure that at all times the majority of the Directors would be Owners/Members, such as:

The affairs of the Association shall be governed by the Executive Board composed of not fewer than three (?) but not more than five (?) persons (whatever your requirement is), as set forth in the Declaration, of whom not more than one (?) may not be an Owner, and none of whom shall be related by marriage or civil union, blood or adoption or by partnership.

Or written a bit differently as:

The affairs of the Association shall be governed by the Executive Board composed of not fewer than three (?) but not more than five (?) persons, as set forth in the Declaration, all of whom shall be an Owner, except for one (?) who does not need to be an Owner, and none of whom shall be related by marriage or civil union, blood or adoption or by partnership.
TheI (Florida)
Posts: 40
Posted:
An association is a membership, to be a member you have to be an owner of the property, to be considered an owner you need to be on the title. Being on the title means you have vested interest in the property and the association. Why would you let someone who does not have vested interest in the property have a say in how the association should be run? In theory it may sound like an ok idea if there is a husband or wife not on title that want to be on the board but you open youself up to other possibilities like renters that think they should have the chance to be on the board.
I am not sure what finances have to do with this? Unless you are refering to the filing fee? But if they don't want to pay that then the parties could fill out the quick claim deed and give a copy to the association. Technically once the deed is filled out the other party is on title and for the purpose of the association it does not have to be filed with the clerks office. You can get quick claim deeds at any office store for about $10.
LaurenM (Texas)
Posts: 20
Posted:
Lots of good points made here, but I'll add my two cents to the mix. I think we would all agree that whatever state you are in, the governing docs (declaration, articles of incorporation and by-laws) rule in most cases. So, read the exact definition of "member" and also each doc to see who can be a director and if there are any restrictions to that. In our case, our bylaws state that directors do not have to be members, but that the president and vice-president are required to be members. Our Board tried to change the bylaws to say that directors must be members, but we had a board director who technically was not on title due to her age she had her son on title, but she was owner, on residing in unit, and willing to serve. No one wanted to see her removed so we voted down this change at our last owner meeting. Technically, all members would have agreed to the change, but we didn't want to see her removed as we viewed the change as being initiated in order to remove her. In conclusion, I would think that in a spousal relationship, you should take turns to serve, and in our case, if units are co-owend there can only be one vote for that unit.
EllieD (Vermont)
Posts: 446
Posted:
TheI

There are renters and then there are “renters”. As an example, an established Association of say 25 years, and a renter who has rented for the past 25 years and who will probably continue to rent. Might not that person make a good Director?

As another example, someone who has owned their Home, Condo Unit, for 25 years, but for Estate Planning reasons has deeded their property to a son or daughter, but continues to reside in “their” home or Condo Unit. Although now no longer a member of the Association “on paper”, might not that person make a good Director?

Just because “the Documents” allow someone who is not a Member/Owner to serve as a Director, that person still needs to be “elected” to serve.
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
The1,

The one thing I did discover is that the more restrictions you have on who may serve, the smaller the volunteer pool becomes. For large developments, this might not be an issue. For smaller developments, this could become a huge issue.

As for renters, if they are the only one's who are stepping forward and volunteering, I have no issue with it.

Tim

PetunkaM (Florida)
Posts: 1,009
Posted:
Many couples put the title in his or her name, for family estate and tax reasons or, have prenupt agreements, etc.

Lauren, under Florida Not-For-Profit Corporation act it is NOT required to be members of the corporation or Florida residents, to serve or the board, unless the corporation documents so require. And, our docs provide that only members can serve on the board.

Tim, yes, a pool of those members who are willing or able to serve is rapidly shrinking in our community. Hardly ever the Nominating committee finds more than five people to serve (required) and consequently all five are automatically elected. There is no competition.

Ellie, yes, allowing one non-member to serve on the board is certainly the best suggestion so far. The only hiccup is that our membership could reject it. Many argue that any tenant, representing an investor who owns multiple units, should not be on the board. About 35% of all units are leased and about 20% of all units are owned by one investor (a lot of voting power). I am concerned that this number may go up.

No one, I know, seems to object to the spouses – who are not title holders- be given the same rights as members. Also, some people seem to think that these couples should be allowed to attend all meeting together, as a family, that is. In a nutshell, the community is trying to find a way to ‘treat’ them as members. Can it be done ‘legally’? I do not know, yet. Thank you all for your suggestions and responses. I hope we’ll work it out, somehow.
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By PetunkaM on 08/12/2011 9:38 AM
the community is trying to find a way to ‘treat’ them as members. Can it be done ‘legally’? I do not know, yet. Thank you all for your suggestions and responses. I hope we’ll work it out, somehow.

The only way that I see where you can "legally" treat them as members would be to amend your CC&Rs and/or Articles of Incorporation to redefine the term "member". You would only need to amend the highest document as any conflict defers to the higher controlling document. However, it would be best to amend all the documents that have a definition of owner and member in them.

Keep the term "owner" defined as the person, persons or corporation that is listed on the deed.

Redefine the term "member" to be all owners of the said property plus their spouse or legally identified significant other.

You may need to amend other sections of the documents like Assessments being made against the owner of the property vs. the member along with any other sections that may interchange the use of the terms member and owner.

Hope this helps,

Tim

PetunkaM (Florida)
Posts: 1,009
Posted:
Tim,

Thnak you, but this may not work because the definition of ‘member’ would not be in harmony with Florida laws because only the owners are 'members'. But, you gave me an idea. Perhaps, we could introduce a new definition of ‘a family member’ who may not be a title holder and include an additional requirement that such family member must actually reside in the named property as Florida resident. Now this could include spouses, kids over 18 years, brothers, sisters, uncles and aunts all of whom would qualify as long as they live with the title holder.. LOL. Nothing wrong with that. Well, I'll keep on thinking.
TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
I don't think it would be contrary to FL law. FL 720 defines member as:

(8) "Member" means a member of an association, and may include, but is not limited to, a parcel owner or an association representing parcel owners or a combination thereof.

As I read it, the law defers to the Association governing documents to define member. It specifies that it may include, but is not limited to, which also demonstrates that the statute defers to the governing documents. The term "may" indicating a possibility vs. being an exclusive definition.
PetunkaM (Florida)
Posts: 1,009
Posted:
Tim, this is what happens when someone reads one article and does not fully understand what it really means. I do not wish to discuss this subject anymore.

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