Quote:
Posted By KurtG1 on 04/29/2011 6:11 AM
This is from the section of the bylaws dealing with quorum at member meetings: "If, however, such quorum shall not be present or represented at any meeting, another meeting may be called subject to the same notice requirement, and the required quorum at the subsequent meeting shall be one-half of the required quorum at the preceding meeting."
Kurt, I highlighted the one word in what your bylaws say as it is what the board is going to place the argument on (and rightfully so). The word "may" indicates an option. They may do this or not. It is very different from the word "shall" which required them to do something.
Basically, they don't have to call another meeting. However, they do have the option to.
Quote:
Posted By KurtG1 on 04/29/2011 6:11 AM
I made multiple demands and the board says that they have met their obligation by calling the annual meeting and they have no obligation to call the meeting again.
When did you make the demands? Had you suggested it (or made a motion) to have another meeting called at the annual meeting it would be much harder for the Board to say they don't want to. Especially if the membership wants one. If you are making the demands (request) after the meeting, it is much easier for the board to refuse the request. Legally, they did meet their obligation and called a meeting. It's not the Boards fault that the membership chose not to attend. The Board chose
not to exercise the
option offered in the bylaws which is a decision that is legally the Boards to make.
Mind you I'm not saying I agree with the decision your Board made. I'm just pointing out that they did have the right to make it.
Quote:
Posted By KurtG1 on 04/29/2011 6:11 AM
The main issue I need to get past is the ability to hold an election to fill expired seats at a special meeting.
Per what you posted, your Association must comply with the TX corporation code. This code, see links in other postings in this thread, specifies that elections will be as outlined in your governing documents. You posted that, per the Associations attorney, they state that the directors will be elected at the annual meeting.
Without reading the actual section in your documents about how directors are elected/appointed, I would would expect that
if the Board chose to hold a special election to elect directors, there would be no real problem with it. However, it appears that the Board has chosen to take a
strict interpretation of the Bylaws and State Law.
They called a meeting of the members to elect directors.
A quorum at that meeting was not met - hence, no election.
The Board had an option to call another meeting but chose not to.
Quote:
Posted By KurtG1 on 04/29/2011 6:11 AM
I'm not sure I agree with TimB4 that expired board seats are Vacancies. As I understand it, they are expired not vacant.
Let me try and explain it this way:
A meeting was called but due to quorum requirements, elections were not held.
The Board chose the option of not calling another meeting
The person serving as Director can only serve for their elected term and then must be re-elected or appointed to fill a vacant seat.
When the Directors term ended, the seat became
vacant. Because the Board chose not to hold another meeting TX law requires them to fill the vacancy by appointment (a majority vote by the Board). The person they appoint can only fill that seat for the remainder of the term.
Again, I'm not saying it's the moral thing to do. However, it does appear to be legally correct.
Quote:
Posted By KurtG1 on 04/29/2011 6:11 AM
I wonder if I can make a claim that they improperly noticed the annual meeting? I know its weak but under business to be conducted at the annual meeting they listed: election of (1) director. I went back through the changes of the board and there should have been (2) seats up for election. It doesn't suprise me because their record keeping is nearly non-existent.
Notice requirements are a time line for the meeting. If a notice that a meeting would be held was properly given to each member, in a manner identified in your bylaws, then they met the meeting requirement.
One can claim anything but you would need proof that it actually happened.
Additionally, it sounds like you have staggered elections (1 Dir. serving 1 year another serving 2 years, etc. vs the entire board being elected at one time). When the board appoints someone to fill a vacancy, per TX law they fill the seat for the remainder of the term. Therefore, just because someone wasn't elected the year before doesn't require that that seat would be up for election again the next year. Suggest you verify the # of Directors required to be elected at any one meeting.
Quote:
Posted By KurtG1 on 04/29/2011 6:11 AM
What about this: in 2008 the board voted to change the bylaws regarging quorum from 20% to 10%. At the annual meeting they were using the 20% number. I think we had the 10% necessary to hold the meeting both last year and this year.
What do your documents say about amending the bylaws? It's possible that the Board did not have that authority.
Sec 22:102 of TX corporate code says [emphasis added]:
Sec. 22.102. BYLAWS.
(c) The board of directors may amend or repeal the bylaws, or adopt new bylaws,
unless: (1) this chapter or the corporation's certificate of formation wholly or partly reserves the power exclusively to the corporation's members;
(2) the management of the corporation is vested in the corporation's members; or
(3) in amending, repealing, or adopting a bylaw, the members expressly provide that the board of directors may not amend or repeal the bylaw.
Therefore, they may or may not have been allowed to change the quorum requirement on their own.
Quote:
Posted By KurtG1 on 04/29/2011 6:11 AM
I made a request to the management company to inspect the sign-in sheet and they have been blocking me from accessing it. Actually they have been stalling my access to certain records for over a month now.
Have you threatened any legal action? If you have, the Association typically doesn't have to allow access unless you obtain a court order (the discovery process).
However, if you never threatened legal action then TX law give you the right to inspect the records:
Sec. 22.351. MEMBER'S RIGHT TO INSPECT BOOKS AND RECORDS. A member of a corporation, on written demand stating the purpose of the demand, is entitled to examine and copy at the member's expense, in person or by agent, accountant, or attorney, at any reasonable time and for a proper purpose, the books and records of the corporation relevant to that purpose.
I would recommend sending a certified letter citing this passage and identify what records you wish to inspect. NOTE: Do not threaten any legal action as this could prevent you access.
If they still refuse, then you would probably have to file legal action to make the Association comply.
TX HOA or Condo laws (whichever would apply) may mirror those rights. You should check them as well.
Quote:
Posted By KurtG1 on 04/29/2011 6:11 AM
Another, less disirable, route would be to get the 25% number of signatures for a special meeting, which I have to do anyway, but with the purpose of recalling all 3 board members. Our bylaws state: "the Members may remove any director with or without cause by a majority vote at a meeting of the Members called for such purpose". It continues "In the event of the death, resignation or removal of a director, his successor shall be selected by the remaining members of the Board and shall serve for the unexpired term of his prececessor". What happens if you vote to remove all of them? Can the remaining members appoint the person you removed back to their seat?
Yes they can appoint whomever they desire to fill the vacancies.
A better option would be one I pointed out to you earlier:
Solicit proxies for the next annual meeting. If you walk-in with 25% of the membership proxies there would be a quorum. Additionally, you would have a huge block of votes and may actually be the one deciding who is elected to the Board.
Hope this helps,
Tim