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DeeS1 (Michigan)
Posts: 223
Posted:
I'm wondering what typically happens in this case. We had a home foreclosed on by the bank and the Michigan 6-month redemption period expired. The bank has officially owned/possessed the home for over a year now and has made no effort to pay any association dues and has not listed the house on the market (which is a very different scenario from our other foreclosures where the banks unload the house quickly at rock-bottom prices).

Our attorney has just sent the bank an intent to foreclose package from our HOA (FYI-we are allowed to do non-judicial foreclosures here). IF they do not respond and a foreclosure goes through (I know, unlikely), what happens?

I assume since the bank now owns the home, there is no 1st or 2nd mortgage lien in place (they would have been discharged during the first foreclosure, correct?), so if we foreclose and the redemption period expires (30 days for a vacant property), would the HOA then own the home free and clear?

Are people running into this? We've had around 20 foreclosures over the last 3 years, and the banks have always either promptly paid dues or sold the home so quickly, our liens were paid within 1-2 months of possession.
MelissaP1 (Alabama)
Posts: 13,836
Posted:
I did a foreclosure in my HOA. Won't bore you with the details.. The property didn't sell to the bidder who backed out. The HOA didn't want the property either. The bank eventually turned over the property to HUD. It became a HUD foreclosure in the end. Which is another entity than the bank. None of which is going to pay the dues during their ownership.

IF you didn't have a lien on the property prior to the bank foreclosure, your NEVER going to get the money. However, if you did have a lien doesn't mean you get paid either. A foreclosure the bank ALWAYS gets paid first and whatever money leftover goes to pay off the other debtors. The HOA's lien being one of them.

Don't expect the bank/HUD to pay any of the backdues owed when the property went into foreclosure. They MAY pay ONLY the amount of missed dues when THEY owned the property. No owner would be responsible for previous owner's debts anyways. So until the bank/HUD unloads the property, do NOT expect to get the money they owe. You will be lucky to get it even after it's unloaded. It's kind of a guessing game unless you keep up with the situation.

Former HOA President
DanaB1 (Connecticut)
Posts: 319
Posted:
Dee,

Why is this bank not paying the dues? It sounds like other banks have to your association in the past?

In Ct., the bank pays the dues while they hold the note to an empty unit.
MelissaP1 (Alabama)
Posts: 13,836
Posted:
Banks do pay for the dues while they own the property.(Most of the time) However, most bank's hold out on paying until they sell the property. It's how we knew how some of our properties were sold. We'd get a big check from a bank. No use in putting a lien on a bank. They already own the first lien...

I can't say that it's 100% that bank's pay current dues on their HOA property. They don't have a copy of the rules of the HOA nor have an interest in how the property is run. A bank won't come to a HOA meeting nor vote at elections. It depends on the HOA and how it operates if the bank pays. A functional HOA would be in contact with the bank to let them know about the HOA's dues. A disfunctional HOA, is too lost and confused to know what to do. This is where the "fudge factor" of "MOST" comes into play. A bank/mortgage company can be just like any other potential buyer who may or may not be aware of the HOA existance...

Former HOA President
DeeS1 (Michigan)
Posts: 223
Posted:
yes, most of the banks do pay or sell them so quickly we usually get prompt payment for their pro-rated portion of the dues. We know the homeowner's portion are discharged at foreclosure and we have to go after them in court if we want them (not usually worth the trouble).

My concern is that this bank is showing no signs of putting the home on the market AND has not paid dues. My understanding, and I'm not sure of this, is that the bank's lien on the homeowner is satisfied/closed at the time the house is foreclosed and all other subordinate liens are discharged? They take the home as payment and may go after the homeowner for the rest of the amount if they wish ... but the bank is then the owner of the home "lien free" ...is this true? IF yes, then when the association puts a new lien on the BANK for non-payment of dues, there are no other priority liens, correct? If we foreclose, we would be the primary lien holder, correct (assuming no tax liens).

I'm trying to figure out if the HOA would actually "own" the house after the foreclosure redemption period expires and if yes, what that means.
MelissaP1 (Alabama)
Posts: 13,836
Posted:
The HOA really does NOT want to own the property. It means the HOA has to make mortgage payments. Can they afford that? It's NOT like it's "free property". The property has value and that value is whatever is still owed the bank. The HOA may have other related expenses when it comes to purchasing foreclosed property. There are legal fees and possible tax responsibilities. The HOA would have to pay the dues on the property, maintenance costs, and any other costs associated with home ownership. Some states even allow the original owner to purchase back their foreclosed property up to a year after the foreclosure plus any improvements.

Unless your HOA can afford to own a home or afford to buy/sell a home. It's not worth going down that path...

Former HOA President
DerrickZ (Oregon)
Posts: 2
Posted:
Just because a bank has a 1st mortgage doesn't necessarily mean they are in 1st position to get paid. Some municipal entities get paid before 1st mortgages in foreclosures. I think (I am no lawyer) that some states allow HOA's to be superior to 1st mortgage. Mechanics can also be superior to the 1st mortgage is the mechanics lien predates the mortgage (if it was there first). The HOA kind of acts like the mechanic's lien in that the HOA encumbers the 'clear title' to the property with their rules (the CC&Rs), and therefore retain the ability to collect fees associated against the property before the 1st mortgage holder.

In these cases, it makes foreclosing on a delinquent property a reasonable financial move for the association... if you are cold-hearted enough to kick your neighbor to the curb, and take on the task of selling the newly foreclosed house.
DeeS1 (Michigan)
Posts: 223
Posted:
I believe where we are it's taxes (city and state) first, 1 mortgage holder, HOA, 2 mortgage, and then other liens in order of filing. The taxes are current. My understanding is, and what I was trying to find out for others with experience, once the home forecloses and the redemption period expires, all liens except taxes are discharged. The bank has accepted the home as payment for their secured dept. So, in a case like this, the bank would now essentially be the owner free and clear... there is no longer a mortgage lien, as it was discharged when the bank accepted the house. So, if the hoa foreclosed on the bank, there would be no mortgage payments to make.

While it wasn't the intention of this original post, as far as being "cold-hearted enough to kick your neighbor to the curb, and take on the task of selling the newly foreclosed house," as I mentioned previously, the house has been bank-owned and it has been empty for over a year with no signs of trying to pay their dues or move the property. There are no neighbors being kicked to the curb or newly foreclosed homes. Although, I am not in principle opposed to initiating foreclosure on homes that don't pay dues or make any effort to make payment arrangements ... I believe that it IS "cold-hearted" to expect your neighbors to pick up the slack when you don't make any effort to pay your share of the association bills ...
LarryB13 (Arizona)
Posts: 4,099
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By WillV on 10/03/2014 10:10 PM
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TimB4 (Tennessee)
Posts: 21,059
Posted:
WillV posted earlier as ChloeC and the moderators removed that one.

When will companies learn that if they can't follow the simple rules of a forum, why would potential customers expect them to follow the more complex laws of the State or Federal governments?

KellyM3 (North Carolina)
Posts: 2,239
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By MelissaP1 on 04/24/2011 7:03 PM
Banks do pay for the dues while they own the property.(Most of the time) However, most bank's hold out on paying until they sell the property. It's how we knew how some of our properties were sold. We'd get a big check from a bank. No use in putting a lien on a bank. They already own the first lien...

I can't say that it's 100% that bank's pay current dues on their HOA property. They don't have a copy of the rules of the HOA nor have an interest in how the property is run. A bank won't come to a HOA meeting nor vote at elections. It depends on the HOA and how it operates if the bank pays. A functional HOA would be in contact with the bank to let them know about the HOA's dues. A disfunctional HOA, is too lost and confused to know what to do. This is where the "fudge factor" of "MOST" comes into play. A bank/mortgage company can be just like any other potential buyer who may or may not be aware of the HOA existance...

How does a bank place a lien on a property it owns outright and most certainly with a clean title since the bank foreclosed the lien from the top priority lien position.
NpS (Pennsylvania)
Posts: 4,216
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By KellyM3 on 10/08/2014 4:30 PM
How does a bank place a lien on a property it owns outright and most certainly with a clean title since the bank foreclosed the lien from the top priority lien position.

You're right Kelly. You can't hold a lien on a property you own outright. The post-foreclosure title is clean. And the bank is 100% liable for the post-foreclosure assessments.


Sikubali jukumu. Read all posts at your own risk.

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