JamieL3 (California)
Posts: 8
Posts: 8
Posted:
Hi:
4.5 years ago, there was a vote to pass an amendment that would restrict the total number of rentals allowed in the condo building I am a member of.
However, the board never actually recorded the amendment with the County.
Is this amendment legal?
Also, by the look of the amendment they did not have any "Acknowledgement" letters from any owners, or any "Consent and Subordination" letters signed by the lenders (which the other amendments do have). Do they need these letters to properly record the Amendment at this time?
Can they even record the amendment now that it is over 4.5 years after the vote? Most of the people who voted have either sold or foreclosed on their properties in the mean time.
Thank you
Jamie Lewis
4.5 years ago, there was a vote to pass an amendment that would restrict the total number of rentals allowed in the condo building I am a member of.
However, the board never actually recorded the amendment with the County.
Is this amendment legal?
Also, by the look of the amendment they did not have any "Acknowledgement" letters from any owners, or any "Consent and Subordination" letters signed by the lenders (which the other amendments do have). Do they need these letters to properly record the Amendment at this time?
Can they even record the amendment now that it is over 4.5 years after the vote? Most of the people who voted have either sold or foreclosed on their properties in the mean time.
Thank you
Jamie Lewis