JanaC (Tennessee)
Posts: 31
Posts: 31
Posted:
Hi again,
I have live in my neighborhood since July 31, 2006. I was told that the lot across the street from where I live was a common property. I have the Deed from the court house and find that the Developer still ownes it. The Sec/Treasure (being one person) has decided that next week he will go and have the Deed transfered into our HOA names. Can he do that without a vote of the members?
He says his attorney says he can, but the Homeowners don't want it, nor the responisablity of it such as taxes and insurance. Our Declaration, Articals of Inc. and By Laws are written that in order to do something like this, the board must have 2/3 of the homeowners written concent, which they do not. We only have 52 homes in this neighborhood and I have 17 proxy votes that say they don't want it. My question is how can the board legally do this without notifing the homeowners and getting the required votes. And it's not a vote of the Meeting of the Members either.
Thanks again,
I have live in my neighborhood since July 31, 2006. I was told that the lot across the street from where I live was a common property. I have the Deed from the court house and find that the Developer still ownes it. The Sec/Treasure (being one person) has decided that next week he will go and have the Deed transfered into our HOA names. Can he do that without a vote of the members?
He says his attorney says he can, but the Homeowners don't want it, nor the responisablity of it such as taxes and insurance. Our Declaration, Articals of Inc. and By Laws are written that in order to do something like this, the board must have 2/3 of the homeowners written concent, which they do not. We only have 52 homes in this neighborhood and I have 17 proxy votes that say they don't want it. My question is how can the board legally do this without notifing the homeowners and getting the required votes. And it's not a vote of the Meeting of the Members either.
Thanks again,