MarionM (Michigan)
Posts: 4
Posts: 4
Posted:
Hello,
Background:
About five years ago, our developer turned over the HOA to the homeowners. At the meeting called for this purpose, one of the homeowners stated that 7 directors would be elected. A representative present from the management company hired by the developer stated that the Code of Regulations (Bylaws) allowed for the election of 3 Board of Trustee members. The same homeowner motioned for 7 directors, another homeowner seconded the motion, and the election took place.
Concern:
Our HOA Bylaws do state that there will be 3 elected Board of Trustee members and they in turn will choose Officers of the Association. The Bylaws can only be amended by a majority vote of 67% of the homeowners.
Questions:
1) Since the Bylaws were amended by a motion, rather than by a majority vote of 67% of the homeowners, is the Board valid?
2) If the Board is not valid, doesnβt that mean that all actions taken by the Board since its inception are unlawful?
Thank you!
Background:
About five years ago, our developer turned over the HOA to the homeowners. At the meeting called for this purpose, one of the homeowners stated that 7 directors would be elected. A representative present from the management company hired by the developer stated that the Code of Regulations (Bylaws) allowed for the election of 3 Board of Trustee members. The same homeowner motioned for 7 directors, another homeowner seconded the motion, and the election took place.
Concern:
Our HOA Bylaws do state that there will be 3 elected Board of Trustee members and they in turn will choose Officers of the Association. The Bylaws can only be amended by a majority vote of 67% of the homeowners.
Questions:
1) Since the Bylaws were amended by a motion, rather than by a majority vote of 67% of the homeowners, is the Board valid?
2) If the Board is not valid, doesnβt that mean that all actions taken by the Board since its inception are unlawful?
Thank you!