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AvanD1 (California)
Posts: 22
Posted:
An HOA Board of Directors has decide to impose a penalty on a homeowner.
The Board has chosen a date and time to present its decision to the homeowner.
The Board has informed the homeowner that he "must appear" at this meeting "in person," and that the homeowner "may only request one continuance" to extend the hearing date.

Can the Board REQUIRE that the homeowner attend this meeting?

DonnaS (Tennessee)
Posts: 5,671
Posted:

Avan,

If it is written in your governing documents that the H.O must appear before the committee or Board, then they certainly can. If you are the homeowner in violation and are about to get fined for non compliance, why would you not appear? Settle things while the Board is working this out in the first step towards a resolution. Otherwise, there should be concequences for not appearing and then we get into rising costs and perhaps much more severe penalties. Maybe they have the ability to lein you as the fines grow? That certainly would be the road of hard knocks to follow. I never understand a homeowners lack of taking care of such things. Costs can only get greater if you do not work this out.
AvanD1 (California)
Posts: 22
Posted:
Thank you for your response, Donna.
The homeowner (my friend) will definitely attend the meeting.
I am just wondering if the Board can actually "require" him to attend.
BrianB (California)
Posts: 2,820
Posted:
nope, no more than a judge can require you to attend a hearing.

The board is more than able to take the lack of action/attendance by the homeowner into consideration when working on a decision in whatever 'situation' they are deciding. In my HR circles, we call it "trial in absencia", and it's very easy, effective process for us. We typically figure "if the person doesn't care enough to offer a defense, they must not have one."

RichardP13 (California)
Posts: 1,767
Posted:
Avan

You mentioned in your first post that the Board had selected a date to impose its decision. First, before any decision they must follow certain guidelines. The Board must appear, while the owner has the option to decline.

Notice of Hearing

Before a board can meet to consider imposing discipline upon a member, it must notify the member in writing, by either personal delivery or first-class mail, at least 10 days prior to the meeting (unless the governing document set a longer notice period). Civil Code §1363(h). The notice must contain the following:

•The date, time, and place of the meeting,
•The nature of the alleged violation for which a member may be disciplined, and
•A statement that the member has a right to attend the hearing, view the evidence of violation, and present a defense, including his/her own witnesses and documentary evidence.

AvanD1 (California)
Posts: 22
Posted:
Thank you for your response, Brian.
I am not very familiar with this term, "trial in absentia."
Do California courts allow trials in absentia?

AvanD1 (California)
Posts: 22
Posted:
Thank you for your input, Richard.

I posted this question because I thought the owner had the option to decline (though I wasn't sure if that option pertained only to IDR).

The letter did not include a statement that the member has a right to "present a defense, including his/her own witnesses and documentary evidence." According to the Board's letter to the owner, the purpose of the meeting is to "give the Board the opportunity to share their decision with you."

I should mention that this is the second hearing the Board has held regarding this matter. The first hearing was held about a year ago (if I remember correctly) with a different Board. The President of the previous Board told the owner that he (the President) would drop the case. However, the new Board has decided to revisit the case.

RichardP13 (California)
Posts: 1,767
Posted:
Quote:
Posted By AvanD1 on 10/05/2010 11:26 PM
Thank you for your input, Richard.

I posted this question because I thought the owner had the option to decline (though I wasn't sure if that option pertained only to IDR).

The letter did not include a statement that the member has a right to "present a defense, including his/her own witnesses and documentary evidence." According to the Board's letter to the owner, the purpose of the meeting is to "give the Board the opportunity to share their decision with you."

I should mention that this is the second hearing the Board has held regarding this matter. The first hearing was held about a year ago (if I remember correctly) with a different Board. The President of the previous Board told the owner that he (the President) would drop the case. However, the new Board has decided to revisit the case.


In my opinion, a new Board should now be revisit an old issue that the "Association" dropped. It is "double jeopardy". If the new Board wants to bring up new charges, thats within their rights, but should bring up something that a previous President, "Association" dropped. New case, new hearing.
RichardP13 (California)
Posts: 1,767
Posted:
I meant to say, A new Board should not....
SureshD
Posts: 268
Posted:
The notion an HOA BoD can FORCE someone to attend a meeting is absurd. You'll notice the laws spell out the RIGHT of the aggrieved to attend, not the other way around.

The second notion I hear in some of these responses is the BoD's right to bring on additional penalties for not attending or ignoring the meetings.

Where do they get such authority?

The docs. must clearly spell out the violation/fine levels and any other interest or expense(s) in processing the fine/violation one may be subject to (Legal fees, stationary).

The idea the BoD can ADD some other "punitive action" after the facts of the violation/fine would not be tolerated in my HoA.
SusanW1 (Michigan)
Posts: 5,202
Posted:
No, he can't be forced. The "must" is just verbiage that the board uses in order safeguard their right to come to a conclusion, based on procedures. (He was asked to show up and he didn't, therefore . . . ')

Should he go? Abosolutely, send an agent, lawyer or attend himself if he wants to fight this.

It will not look good if he does not attend a mandatory hearing and then chooses to fight the decision.

SureshD
Posts: 268
Posted:
It's not about looking good.

Your suggesting his/her right to contest a decision and receive due-process are somehow diminished by not attending a hearing of the decision?

In what way?

BrianB (California)
Posts: 2,820
Posted:
AvanD1:

Trials in absentia are possible. Not sure if California has done one in a while, but in certain cases, it is legal. While Roman Polanski was present at his trial, his sentence, for example, was done in absentia (he skipped the country between the trial and sentence being given). In general, trial in absentia requires specific legal hurdles to be jumped before they are valid, but there are valid cases of it.

Saresh:
while your rights to due process are not likely diminished by failure to show up before the board, a good board/lawyer will use the lack of attendance as an example of your character and interests when you do exercise those rights. It may not prevent your use of due process rights, but it can be used to paint a poorer picture of you and potentially sway a judge about you. And one should always remember, judges are not bound to the law, they are free to rule any way they want, even contrary to the law*. So, a judge could decide that a failure to show up at a meeting is enough to rule against the defendant.

In some legal cases (outside the HOA venue, i know of several), however, there are penalties/limits to your due process rights that are tied to your actions in set, timely manners. If you fail to do X, then your due process rights (along this path) cease. Failure to do X impacts your future rights to do Y. I don't know HOA law enough to say these apply there (they might), just that they do in other legal situations.

*personal knowledge, I was in a court when a judge stated, on the record "I don't care what the law says, it's my court and I do things my way." And he did, ruled absolutely contrary to the state law.
GlenL (Ohio)
Posts: 5,491
Posted:
It really depends on how it was phrased. Is it possible that the actual phrase in the letter was something more along the line of: You must appear in person in order to contest this.

Studies show that 5 out of 4 people have problems with fractions
MaryA1 (Arizona)
Posts: 388
Posted:
While the CA law requires the BOD to inform the member of the meeting where their violation will be discussed and also inform them of their "right to attend", it does not require the member to attend. Frankly I prefer AZ's law which states a member must be informed of their right to be heard before the board before a fine can be imposed. This puts the monkey squarely on the member's back. If they do not contact the board a fine may be levied and they have no recourse. Whenever my board is contacted by a member they are informed of the date, time and place of the next board meeting where they may meet with the board in an open session. BTW fines are automatically levied IAW our board adopted policy; the board does not have to approve them beforehand. Discussion only takes place if the member asks to be heard.
AvanD1 (California)
Posts: 22
Posted:
Thank you for your latest response, Richard.

One issue may be that my friend does not have written verification (from the previous Board) that the case was dropped.

Basically, the Board ruled that my friend needed to correct an architectural violation (at the cost of about $15,000) regarding some windows. The Board aggressively pursued the case until my friend produced a photo showing that his upstairs-neighbor had committed the same violation. (Both violations are difficult to detect without close scrutiny.)

This upstairs-neighbor is friends with three of the four members of the (now-former) Board, and my friend would occasionally see them walking back from dinner together.

Once these Board members realized that the upstairs-neighbor had committed the same violation, they immediately eased up on the case. Perhaps a month later, the (now-former) Board President saw my friend in the building and casually stated that he was dropping the case.

PART 2: NEW PRESIDENT

About a year or so later, the newly elected Board President went to visit my friend at my friend's condo. The new President announced that he had owned a "national company" and would be revisiting past violations*

*In a separate encounter, the newly elected President's wife/girlfriend (who had served on the previous Board and occasionally dined with the upstairs-neighbor) told my friend that the upstairs-neighbor's violation was "grandfathered in." The President's dog, which is over the CC&Rs allowable weight limit (and was purchased shortly before my friend's violation occurred), has also been "grandfathered in."
AvanD1 (California)
Posts: 22
Posted:
Thank you for your post, Glen. The letter does not state anything about contesting the decision, although perhaps that was omitted unintentionally.

Thank you to Suresh, Susan, Mary, and everyone else for your input. You have all made some great points.

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